MASTER THE PSAT/NMSQT

Peterson’s

MASTER THE PSAT/NMSQT

®

5th Edition

Peterson’s

MASTER THE PSAT/NMSQT

®

5th Edition Byron Demmer Shirley Tarbell

About Peterson’s, a Nelnet company Peterson’s (www.petersons.com) is a leading provider of education information and advice, with books and online resources focusing on education search, test preparation, and financial aid. Its Web site offers searchable databases and interactive tools for contacting educational institutions, online practice tests and instruction, and planning tools for securing financial aid. Peterson’s serves 110 million education consumers annually.

For more information, contact Peterson’s, 2000 Lenox Drive, Lawrenceville, NJ 08648; 800-338-3282; or find us on the World Wide Web at: www.petersons.com/about. © 2007 Peterson’s, a Nelnet company Previous editions © 2000, 2002, 2003, 2004 PSAT/NMSQTT is a registered trademark of the College Board and National Merit Scholarship Corporation, which were not involved in the production of, and do not endorse, this product. Editor: Wallie Walker Hammond; Production Editor: Jill C. Schwartz; Manufacturing Manager: Ivona Skibicki; Composition Manager: Gary Rozmierski ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. No part of this work covered by the copyright herein may be reproduced or used in any form or by any means—graphic, electronic, or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, taping, Web distribution, or information storage and retrieval systems—without the prior written permission of the publisher. For permission to use material from this text or product, complete the Permission Request Form at http://www.petersons.com/permissions. ISBN-13: 978-0-7689-2510-4 ISBN-10: 0-7689-2510-X Printed in the United States of America 10

9

8

7

Fifth Edition

6

5

4

3

2

1

09

08

07

Petersons.com/publishing Check out our Web site at www.petersons.com/publishing to see if there is any new information regarding the tests and any revisions or corrections to the content of this book. We’ve made sure the information in this book is accurate and up-to-date; however, the test format or content may have changed since the time of publication.

OTHER RECOMMENDED TITLES Peterson’s In-a-Flash: PSAT Peterson’s Master the SAT Peterson’s Success with Words

Contents

............................................................................. Before You Begin . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . xi How This Book Is Organized . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . xi Special Study Features . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . xii You’re Well on Your Way to Success . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . xii Give Us Your Feedback . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . xii Top 10 Strategies to Raise Your Score . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . xiv

PART I: PSAT/NMSQT BASICS 1

All About the PSAT/NMSQT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Overview of the PSAT/NMSQT Content . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Why Should I Take the PSAT/NMSQT? . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . When Should I Take the PSAT/NMSQT? . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . How Is the Test Scored? . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . What Can the Scores Be Used For?. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Getting Ready for the PSAT/NMSQT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Study Plans for the PSAT/NMSQT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Summing It Up . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

3 3 4 6 7 9 10 12 17

PART II: DIAGNOSING STRENGTHS AND WEAKNESSES 2

Practice Test 1: Diagnostic . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25 Answer Key and Explanations. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 54

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT REVIEW 3

Critical Reading Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 73 Sentence Completion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 73 Exercises: Sentence Completions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 81 Answer Key and Explanations. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 83 Reading Skills. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 85

viii

Contents

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Exercises: Reading Skills. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Answer Key and Explanations. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Summing It Up . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

93 97 99

4

Words, Words, and More Words. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 101 How Words Are Built . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 102 The Three Basic Word Parts and How They Work . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 102 List of Common Word Parts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 102 The Best Ways to Learn New Words . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 113 Using Context Clues . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 113 Exercises: Word Parts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 115 Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 118 Summing It Up . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 119

5

Math Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 121

6

Standard Multiple Choice . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Student-Produced Response. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Arithmetic . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Exercises: Arithmetic . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Algebra . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Exercises: Algebra . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Geometry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Exercises: Geometry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Answers and Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Summing It Up . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

121 122 124 135 136 137 150 151 152 170 171 172

Writing Skills Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 173 Identifying Sentence Errors . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 173 Exercises: Identifying Sentence Errors . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 177 Answer Key and Explanations. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 179 Improving Sentences . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 181 Exercises: Improving Sentences . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 184 Answer Key and Explanations. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 187 Improving Paragraphs. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 188 Common Grammar and Usage Problems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 190 Exercises: Improving Paragraphs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 192 Answer Key and Explanations. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 194 Summing It Up . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 195

PART IV: TWO PRACTICE TESTS Practice Test 2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 203 Answer Key and Explanations. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 236 www.petersons.com

Contents

ix

.................................................................

APPENDIXES Appendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 311 Appendix B: All About the SAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 347

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Practice Test 3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 257 Answer Key and Explanations. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 291

Before You Begin

............................................................................. HOW THIS BOOK IS ORGANIZED Taking the PSAT/NMSQT is a skill. It shares some aspects with other endeavors, such as competing in athletics. It requires discipline and practice to succeed. These are skills that can be improved through coaching, but ultimately, improvement also requires practice. This book gives you both. •

Top 10 Strategies to Raise Your Score lists the ten most important test-taking tips to help you score high on the PSAT/ NMSQT.

•

Part I provides essential information on the PSAT/NMSQT, including where to take it and how it’s scored. You’ll also learn what subjects are covered and what traps to watch out for. This part of the book also shows you each test section and each basic type of question up close; we’ve provided examples of each type of question (along with explanations), so you can get a good initial feel for the overall test.

•

Part II is a diagnostic test of the PSAT/NMSQT sections. This will give you your first chance to work with PSAT/NMSQT question types. Use the results of this test to determine where you need to focus your preparation.

•

Part III provides the review and strategies for successfully attacking every question type you’ll encounter in the actual exam.

•

Part IV consists of two additional full-length practice tests with detailed answer explanations for each question. Remember to use these practice tests to sharpen your skills.

•

The Appendixes provide a handy vocabulary list to help you prepare for the PSAT/NMSQT, as well as resources for your future SAT preparation.

xi

xii

Before You Begin

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SPECIAL STUDY FEATURES Peterson’s Master the PSAT/NMSQT is designed to be as user-friendly as it is complete. To this end, it includes several features to make your preparation more efficient.

Overview Each chapter begins with a bulleted overview listing the topics covered in the chapter. This will allow you to quickly target the areas in which you are most interested.

Summing It Up Each chapter ends with a point-by-point summary that reviews the most important items in the chapter. The summaries offer a convenient way to review key points.

Bonus Information As you work your way through the book, look for bonus information and advice in the margins of the pages. Information is in the following forms: NOTE Notes highlight need-to-know information about the PSAT/NMSQT, whether it’s details about registration and scoring or the structure of a question type. TIP Tips provide valuable strategies and insider information to help you score your best on the PSAT/NMSQT. ALERT! Alerts do just what they say—alert you to common pitfalls and misconceptions you might face or hear regarding the PSAT/NMSQT.

YOU’RE WELL ON YOUR WAY TO SUCCESS Peterson’s Master the PSAT/NMSQT will help prepare you for the steps you’ll need to take to achieve your goal—from scoring high on the exam to receiving a college scholarship. Good luck!

GIVE US YOUR FEEDBACK Peterson’s publishes a full line of resources to help guide you through the college admission process. Peterson’s publications can be found at your local bookstore, library, and high school guidance office. You can also access us online at www.petersons.com.

www.petersons.com

Before You Begin

xiii

.................................................................

Publishing Department Peterson’s, a Nelnet company 2000 Lenox Drive Lawrenceville, NJ 08648 Your feedback will help us make your educational dreams possible.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

We welcome any comments or suggestions you may have about this publication and invite you to complete our online survey at www.petersons.com/booksurvey. Or you can fill out the survey at the back of this book, tear it out, and mail it to us at:

xiv

Before You Begin

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

TOP 10 STRATEGIES TO RAISE YOUR SCORE When it comes to taking the PSAT/NMSQT, some test-taking skills will do you more good than others. There are concepts you can learn and techniques you can follow that will help you do your best. Here’s our pick for the top 10 strategies to raise your score: 1.

Create a study plan and follow it. The right PSAT/NMSQT study plan will help you get the most out of this book in whatever time you have.

2.

Don’t get stuck on any one question. Since you have a specific amount of time to answer questions, you can’t afford to spend too much time on any one problem.

3.

Learn the directions in advance. If you already know the directions, you won’t have to waste your time reading them. You’ll be able to jump right in and start answering questions as soon as the testing clock begins.

4.

For the writing questions, think about the simplest, clearest way to express an idea. If an answer choice sounds awkward or overly complicated, chance are good that it’s wrong.

5.

For sentence completions, as you read, try to predict what word should go in each blank. Sometimes you can guess the meaning of one blank, but not the other. In that case, scan the answer choices, look for a word that’s similar to the one you’ve predicted, and then eliminate the answer choices that don’t match up.

6.

For reading comprehension questions, skim the passage to see what it’s about. Don’t worry about the details; you can always look them up later if you need to. Look for the main ideas then tackle the questions that direct you straight to the answer by referring you to a specific line in the passage. If you have time afterward, you can try solving the harder questions.

7.

For the math multiple-choice questions, you’re allowed to use a calculator, but it won’t help you unless you know how to approach the problems. If you’re stuck, try substituting numbers for variables. You can also try plugging in numbers from the answer choices. Start with the middle number. That way, if it doesn’t work, you can strategically choose one that’s higher or lower.

8.

For the math grid-ins, you come up with answer and fill in into a grid. Unlike the multiple-choice questions, you won’t be penalized for wrong answers, so make your best guess even if you’re not sure.

9.

If you aren’t sure about an answer but know something about the question, eliminate what you know is wrong and make an educated guess. Ignore the answers that are absolutely wrong, eliminate choices in which part of the answer is incorrect, check the time period of the question and of the answer choices, check the key words in the question again, and revisit remaining answers to discover which seems more correct.

10.

Finally, relax the night before the test. Don’t cram. Studying at the last minute will only stress you out. Go to a movie or hang out with a friend—anything to get your mind off the test!

www.petersons.com

P ART I

........................................................

PSAT/NMSQT BASICS

...................................................................

CHAPTER 1

All About the PSAT/NMSQT

All About the PSAT/NMSQT

.............................................................................

•

Overview of the PSAT/NMSQT content

•

Why should I take the PSAT/NMSQT?

•

When should I take the PSAT/NMSQT?

•

How is the test scored?

•

What can the scores be used for?

•

Getting ready for the PSAT/NMSQT

•

Study plans for the PSAT/NMSQT

•

Summing it up

The Preliminary SAT National Merit Scholarship Qualifying Test (PSAT/ NMSQT—usually referred to simply as the Preliminary SAT or the PSAT) is a standardized test designed to be one measure of your ability to do college work. It offers advantages of its own (some of which are described in this section), but its most important function is to provide practice for the SAT. The PSAT/NMSQT is shorter, but the questions are of the same difficulty as those on the SAT.

OVERVIEW OF THE PSAT/NMSQT CONTENT The PSAT/NMSQT measures reasoning, reading, and math skills, based on what you’ve learned so far in school. However, you will NOT have to recall facts or dates, define grammatical terms, or provide math formulas, nor will you have to write an essay. Rather, you will be asked to use the skills you’ve acquired in your years of schooling to solve problems—verbal, math, and reasoning—using materials that are given to you on the test. Here are the sections you’ll encounter on the test; they will be described in more detail later in the book.

3

chapter 1

OVERVIEW

4

PART I: PSAT/NMSQT Basics

.................................................................

The questions in a set usually go from the easiest to the hardest. Try to go through the easy ones quickly but carefully.

..........................................................................................

TIP

Sections 1 and 3—Critical Reading (25 minutes each, approximately 52 questions altogether.) These sections will include: •

Sentence Completions questions

•

Reading Skills questions—passages of 500 to 800 words, followed by several multiple-choice questions each

•

Reading Skills questions—paragraph-length passages of about 100 words, followed by 2 or 3 multiple-choice questions each

Sections 2 and 4—Math (25 minutes each, approximately 40 questions altogether.) These sections will include: •

Multiple-choice questions with five choices

•

Student-Produced Response questions

Section 5—Writing Skills (25 minutes, approximately 39 multiple-choice questions altogether.) This section will include: •

Identifying Sentence Errors questions

•

Improving Sentences questions

•

Improving Paragraphs questions

WHY SHOULD I TAKE THE PSAT/NMSQT? Just how much taking the PSAT/NSMQT will help ease your transition from high school to college depends largely on your attitude toward it. First of all, it should NOT be regarded as a measure of your total worth—if you look at it that way, you’ll freeze up. Remember: You’ll grow and change a great deal during the year (or two or three) that lies between you and college, and college administrators know that. What colleges look for, as much as good scores, is potential, along with improvement as you proceed through high school.

So the best way to look at the PSAT/NSMQT is as an opportunity, as a way to get feedback on your college preparedness at this point, and as an aid to mapping out the best course to follow through the rest of your high school career. Perhaps you’ll find you stack up pretty well when measured against other college applicants. Or perhaps you’ll realize you’d better hustle! Whichever is the case, taking the test will help you plan additional classes you may need, as well as a course of independent study, so you can overcome your weaknesses and fortify your strengths. That’s not to say that taking the PSAT/NMSQT lacks immediate practical value, both in terms of getting into the college of your choice and in terms of financing your education. In addition to acting as a yardstick to measure your readiness for college, the test will do the following: •

It will help you prepare for the SAT, which you’ll take in the spring. The PSAT/NMSQT includes most—but not all—of the content tested by the SAT.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 1: All About the PSAT/NMSQT

5

................................................................. It can qualify you to receive information from colleges via the College Board’s Student Search Service, a free information service for students who take the PSAT/NMSQT, the SAT, and Advanced Placement tests. You can sign up for this service at the time you register for the PSAT/NMSQT. By participating in the Student Search Service, you can alert colleges, universities, and scholarship programs that you are interested in hearing from them and in receiving educational and financial aid information.

•

It will place you in the National Merit Scholarship competition and in competition for other prestigious scholarships and special promotions.

What Are Some of These Scholarships and Programs? Among the many scholarships and programs open to students who do well on the PSAT/NMSQT are: THE NATIONAL MERIT SCHOLARSHIP The PSAT, which is given in the fall each year, is also used as a qualifying test for the National Merit Scholarship Program, thus the official name PSAT/NMSQT. The National Merit Scholarship Program consists of five steps. The first step is program entry; students must take the PSAT/NMSQT and meet other eligibility requirements to enter the Merit Program (discussed in greater detail below). This scholarship is sponsored by the National Merit Scholarship Corporation (NMSC), which is a privately financed, not-for-profit organization. The corporation co-sponsors the PSAT/NMSQT and will receive your scores and other information you may choose to provide on your answer sheet. If you qualify for recognition by the NMSC, you will be notified through your high school. For more information on the National Merit Scholarship, you may contact: National Merit Scholarship Corporation 1560 Sherman Avenue, Suite 200 Evanston, IL 60201-4897 847-866-5100 www.nationalmerit.org THE NATIONAL HISPANIC SCHOLAR RECOGNITION PROGRAM If you identify yourself as Hispanic or Latino on your PSAT/NMSQT, you may qualify for help from this program, which sends the names of academically talented students to various colleges for recruitment and offer of financial aid. (If you qualify but fail to identify yourself, your counselor can place you in competition anyway.) For more information, write to: The College Board National Hispanic Recognition Program 11911 Freedom Drive, Suite 300 Reston, VA 20190-5602 800-626-9795 E-mail: [email protected]

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

•

6

PART I: PSAT/NMSQT Basics

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

NATIONAL SCHOLARSHIP SERVICE AND FUND FOR NEGRO STUDENTS (NSSFNS) If you are a junior, plan to attend a two-year or four-year college, and identify yourself as African American, you may qualify for this program. The NSSFNS offers a college advisory and referral service at no charge. For more information, write to: National Scholarship Service (NSSFNS) 980 Martin Luther King Drive, SW P.O. Box 11409 Atlanta, GA 30310 404-522-7260 E-mail: [email protected] www.nssfns.com

THE TELLURIDE ASSOCIATION This association has scholarships available to academically talented juniors for summer seminars in the humanities and social sciences. For more information, write to: Telluride Association 217 West Avenue Ithaca, NY 14850 607-273-5011 E-mail: [email protected] www.tellurideassociation.org

Telluride Association 1735 Washtenaw Avenue Ann Arbor, MI 48104 734-668-6039 E-mail: [email protected] www.tellurideassociation.org

OTHER PROGRAMS A good score on the PSAT/NMSQT may help you qualify for many other programs. Valuable sources of information on these programs are: •

The PSAT/NMSQT Student Bulletin (a MUST—if you haven’t already done so, you should pick one up at your school’s guidance office NOW).

•

Your school’s guidance office.

•

The library—your school’s and the public library.

•

The Internet—where you’ll find many good sites, including the official College Board site at www.collegeboard.com.

WHEN SHOULD I TAKE THE PSAT/NMSQT? Most students attend high school for four years and take the PSAT/NSMQT in Grade 11, their junior year. If you plan to graduate early or to take college courses while still in high school, consult your school counselor and the PSAT/NMSQT Student Bulletin, discussed in the previous section. (See your school’s guidance office for the most up-to-date information on registration.) The test is given once a year, in mid-October.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 1: All About the PSAT/NMSQT

7

.................................................................

If you elect to take the test in your sophomore year, however, you must still take it in your junior year in order to be eligible for all the perks it offers. Again, be sure to consult your school’s guidance office and the PSAT/NMSQT Student Bulletin for the most recent information; the particulars do change from year to year. As of this writing, the following applies: •

You will sign up for the test at your high school. Online registration for the PSAT/NMSQT is not available.

•

The fee is generally $10 (some schools add an extra charge to cover administrative costs), but fee waivers are available from the College Board for juniors whose families cannot afford the fee.

•

To learn about the registration procedures, as well as the correct date, time, and location of the PSAT/NMSQT, you must consult your school’s guidance office or the principal of your school.

HOW IS THE TEST SCORED? After you work through the practice tests in this book, you will probably want to know how you did. Here is the way to estimate your scores on the practice tests. First, find the Raw Score. Begin by determining how many answers you got right and how many you got wrong. To do this, use the Answer Keys that follow each practice test. Now fill in the blanks below, then do the computations as indicated. Do NOT count the questions you omitted.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

You may also take the test for practice as early as your freshman or sophomore year, and this is a good idea, as long as you keep in mind that you will be learning and growing a great deal between your sophomore and junior year and, as emphasized above, this is by no means your last chance for anything.

8

PART I: PSAT/NMSQT Basics

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

CRITICAL READING SECTIONS Questions 1–52 Number of correct answers: Number of incorrect answers: Now subtract: C 2 I 5

5C 1 3 5I 4 (Critical Reading Raw Score)

MATH SECTIONS Questions 1–20 Number of correct answers: Number of incorrect answers: Now subtract: C 2 I 5 Questions 21–32 Number of correct answers:

5C 1 3 5I 4 (Math Raw Score #1)

Now subtract: C 2 I 5

5C 1 3 5I 3 (Math Raw Score #2)

Questions 33–40 Number of correct answers:

5 C (Math Raw Score #3)

Number of incorrect answers:

Now add: Math Raw Score #1 Math Raw Score #2 Math Raw Score #3 5 WRITING SECTION Questions 1–39 Number of correct answers: Number of incorrect answers: Now subtract: C 2 I 5

www.petersons.com

(Total Math Raw Score)

5C 1 3 5I 4 (Writing Raw Score)

Chapter 1: All About the PSAT/NMSQT

9

.................................................................

CRITICAL READING

MATH

WRITING

RAW SCORE

SCORE

RAW SCORE

SCORE

RAW SCORE

SCORE

52

80

40

80

39

80

47

74

35

69

34

75

42

68

30

63

29

67

37

62

25

57

24

60

32

57

20

51

19

54

27

52

15

45

14

49

22

47

10

39

9

43

17

42

5

33

4

37

12

37

2

28

2

34

7

31

0

24

0

31

2

24

21

22

21

30

0

21

22

20

25

24

21

20

29

20

A score of approximately 50 is considered average (the actual “average” score varies each year by a few points). To estimate the score you might receive on the SAT, add a zero to your PSAT/NMSQT Critical Reading and Math scores. Add a zero to your Writing score to estimate your SAT Writing score.

WHAT CAN THE SCORES BE USED FOR? Your PSAT/NMSQT score report—which will be mailed to your high school principal and be available to you after Thanksgiving—will indicate how ready you are academically for college-level work as well as provide valuable information about your test-taking skills. It will give you question-by-question feedback so that you can discover the test questions you missed. That way you will know your strong areas and be able to work on your weak ones. The score report will help you prepare for the SAT—the really important test and your “second chance,” so to speak—by including your estimated SAT scores. In addition, as noted above, the score report will tell you if you are eligible for a National Merit Scholarship. Once again, be sure you pick up a copy of the PSAT/NMSQT Student Bulletin when your test-taking period rolls around. It will give you complete and up-to-date official information on registration; time, date, and location; and scoring of the PSAT/NMSQT.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Now use the table below to convert your Raw Score into your SCORE on each of the three sections.

10

PART I: PSAT/NMSQT Basics

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

GETTING READY FOR THE PSAT/NMSQT Let’s face it—taking the PSAT/NMSQT is no picnic. It’s hard, and the stakes are high. And if you’re one of those people who believes they’re simply “no good at taking tests,” the process can fill you with dread. However, you should be aware that there are a lot of reasons why people feel they’re no good at taking tests that have little to do with actually taking tests. And a good many of those reasons can be remedied. In fact, that’s what this book is all about. To combat fear, learn all you can about the test—the knowledge will calm you down because you’ll feel more grounded, more in control. Never quite ready on test day? Make a vow right NOW to plan ahead this time. Make lists of things to do. Make a schedule of when to do them.

The most important thing of all to remember, however, is this: the PSAT/NMSQT is important, yes, but no standardized test is a measure of who you are, how basically smart you are, or even how well you’ll do on the next test. So relax a little, okay? Of course, it’s entirely possible that you’re one of the lucky people who are good at taking standardized tests. If that’s the case, though, don’t be lulled into false confidence—you’ll still need to work hard and limber up your test-taking muscles for the big event. Working your way through this book will be an excellent start.

Optimize Your Study Environment To get the most out of your test preparation, begin by taking these steps. Find a quiet, uncluttered place to work. Remember, one of the most important skills you can develop for test-taking preparation is concentration. You may tell yourself that you work best with your cat draped across your books, sticky candy wrappers decorating your desk, and the CD player blasting like the takeoff of a 747. But trust us, you’re telling yourself a big, fat lie. In your quiet place, gather together the following: •

This book, along with the PSAT/NMSQT Student Bulletin (a nifty little newspaper-type document that you’ll find in your school’s guidance office, which contains official information about the test as well as a practice test to add to the ones you’ll find here in Master the PSAT/NSMQT).

•

Pencils, scratch paper, and the calculator that you’ll be using during the actual PSAT/NMSQT (don’t buy a new calculator a week before the test—become thoroughly familiar with the one that you’ll be taking with you by working with it in your practice sessions).

•

A kitchen timer (not a clock or stop watch) to use when you do the practice tests.

Set aside a specific time each day to work on preparation for the PSAT/NMSQT. An hour a day is probably best, but it’s up to you. The important thing is to make a daily appointment with yourself and keep it.

During your scheduled time, discourage your friends from calling or coming over. Discourage the people you live with from asking you to do stuff.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 1: All About the PSAT/NMSQT

11

.................................................................

Follow one of the suggested Study Plans on the following pages—or devise a study plan of your own—so you can keep your studying on track. Work your way through this book from beginning to end. Don’t skip anything just because you think you already know it. Thoroughly study all the sections and—most importantly—do all the practice questions.

Practice, Practice, Practice You’ve heard this before, but it bears repeating: In order to do anything well—from playing the guitar to baking prize-winning muffins to skateboarding—you have to work at it. That goes for the PSAT/NMSQT, too. Much of the work consists of plain, grueling drill, doing whatever it is over and over and over. There’s an old joke that illustrates the point: A couple of baseball fans, Katie and Mike, are tourists in Cooperstown, New York, a town that houses a famous baseball museum. They stop a man on the street and ask, “How do we get to the Baseball Hall of Fame?” The man answers, “Practice, practice, practice.” This book will provide you with ample material to do just that.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Make a Study Plan

12

PART I: PSAT/NMSQT Basics

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

STUDY PLANS FOR THE PSAT/NMSQT The Nine-Week Study Plan The study plan below isn’t set in granite, but it will provide a general guideline for your next nine weeks of preparation. Plan to devote at least 5 or 6 hours per week to preparing for the PSAT/NMSQT—more if your schedule permits. This plan assumes you’re equally skilled in all areas. You aren’t, of course, so you’ll want to play with the schedule a little, giving more emphasis to your weaker areas, less to your stronger ones. Take a little extra time in Week 1 to tailor the schedule to your particular needs. REMEMBER: The test is important, but it is by no means your last chance at anything! So relax. And good luck! WEEK 1 Prepare yourself psychologically. Make a commitment of 5 or 6 hours a week for the next nine weeks. Prepare yourself physically. Make a commitment to eat well (this includes breakfast) and get some exercise every day.

READ “Getting Ready for the PSAT/NMSQT” (p. 10).

Book chapters or articles on health and fitness. (You’ll need to read widely over the next nine weeks. Might as well start with these!)

Set up your study area.

Reread “Optimize Your Study Environment” (p. 10).

Learn the basics about the test.

“Overview of the PSAT/NMSQT Content” (pp. 3–4).

Complete Practice Test 1: Diagnostic.

“How is the Test Scored?” (pp. 7–9).

Score your test. Pay special attention to the answer explanations that come after it.

The “Nine-Week Study Plan” (pp. 12–15).

Identify your strengths and weaknesses— tailor your study plan accordingly. Critical Reading—Vocabulary.

www.petersons.com

“Words, Words, and More Words” (pp. 101–119) and “The PSAT/NMSQT Word List” (pp. 313–346).

Chapter 1: All About the PSAT/NMSQT

13

................................................................. READ

Critical Reading—Sentence Completion.

“Sentence Completion” (pp. 73–80).

Memorize the instructions for the Sentence Completion portion.

Magazine articles or book chapters—try Time, Newsweek, Sports Illustrated, or Discover.

Do the Sentence Completion practice exercises (pp. 81–82). Be sure to study the answer explanations. Math—Mathematical Reasoning and Arithmetic.

“Math Review” (pp. 121–172). “Arithmetic” (pp. 124–134).

Memorize the instructions for the Multiple-Choice, and Grid-in sections. Review basic arithmetic. Do the Arithmetic practice exercises (p. 135). Study the answer explanations carefully. WEEK 3 Math—Algebra and Word Problems.

READ “Algebra” (pp. 137–149).

Review the instructions for the math portions. Continue to memorize these! Do the Algebra practice exercises (p. 150). Study the answer explanations carefully. WEEK 4

READ

Critical Reading—Reading Skills.

“Reading Skills” (pp. 85–92).

Memorize the instructions for the Reading Skills portion.

Do a LOT of reading. Try the New York Times, Smithsonian Magazine, or Scientific American. Try novels and short stories.

Do the Reading Skills exercises (pp. 93– 96). Again, study the answer explanations. Math—Continue your algebra review. Concentrate on your weakest areas.

Review “Algebra” (pp. 137–149).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

WEEK 2

14

PART I: PSAT/NMSQT Basics

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

WEEK 5

READ

Writing—Identifying Sentence Errors and Improving Sentences.

“Identifying Sentence Errors” (pp. 173–176).

Memorize the instructions for the Identifying Sentence Errors and Improving Sentences portions.

“Improving Sentences” (pp. 181–183).

Do the Identifying Sentence Errors (pp. 177–178) and the Improving Sentences practice exercises (pp. 184–186). Study the answer explanations with care. Math—Geometry.

WRITE this week—letters, journal entries, or reflections on something you enjoy or believe in strongly.

Review “Geometry” (pp. 152–169).

Review the instructions for the math portions. Have a friend test you on these. Do the Geometry practice exercises (p. 170). Study the answer explanations with care. WEEK 6

READ

Writing—Improving Paragraphs.

“Improving Paragraphs” (pp. 188–191).

Memorize the instructions for the Improving Paragraphs portions.

Write a LOT. Try imitating the writing style of a magazine article or book chapter of interest. Don’t forget to continue your reading!

Do the Improving Paragraphs practice exercises (pp. 192–193). Don’t forget to pay special attention to the answer explanations. Math—Continue your Geometry review. Concentrate on the areas that you’ve identified as your weakest. WEEK 7 Complete Practice Test 2. Score the test. For the rest of the week, go back and review your weakest areas. Study the answer explanations. You’ll learn a great deal from these. WEEK 8 Complete Practice Test 3. Again, score the test. Continue reviewing your weakest areas. Study the answer explanations for all they’re worth!

www.petersons.com

Review “Geometry” (pp. 152–169).

READ Review the critical reading, writing, and math chapters that deal with your weakest areas. Continue to read widely. Try Harper’s, National Geographic, or the New Yorker.

READ Review the critical reading, writing, and math chapters that deal with your weakest areas. Continue to read widely. Try reading fiction this week: Lord of the Flies (William Golding), Song of Solomon (Toni Morrison), the stories of Ernest Hemingway, Joyce Carol Oates, or Stephen King.

Chapter 1: All About the PSAT/NMSQT

15

................................................................. READ

REVIEW, both your weak areas AND your strong ones.

Read challenging material related to a field you think you’d like to study in college.

Be good to yourself. See a movie. Go to a ball game. Have dinner out.

The Eighteen-Week Study Plan Most schools prefer this plan to the nine-week schedule. So if you’re one of those organized, on-top-of-things people, go for it! Double the time you spend on each of the nine weeks, above. (Plan to spend at least 3 hours a week—or more if you can manage it.)

The Panic Plan Too frightened (or busy) to even THINK about the test until two weeks before zero hour? Join the club, taking comfort in the fact that you’re not alone! This isn’t the optimal schedule, because you’ll have to lock yourself in your room and have somebody deliver your food. But you can still succeed! Try this: WEEK 1

READ

Critical Reading.

All Critical Reading “Review” sections.

Memorize the instructions for the Verbal portions.

As many magazine articles as you can before drifting off to sleep—try Time, Newsweek, Sports Illustrated, or Discover.

Do the Critical Reading practice exercises. Check your answers and carefully read the answer explanations. You’ll learn more from these than you thought possible! Math.

All the Math “Review” sections.

Memorize the instructions for the Math portions. Do the Math practice problems.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

WEEK 9

16

PART I: PSAT/NMSQT Basics

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

WEEK 2 Complete Practice Test 1. Identify your strengths and weaknesses. Carefully study the answer explanations to those questions you missed.

READ Read articles about important political figures, the space program, or exotic plants and animals. Do this instead of watching TV, going out, or daydreaming. Remember: it’s just for two weeks!

If you have time, do the same for Practice Test 2. Math. Continue to memorize the instructions for the math portions. Have a friend test you. If you have time, do Practice Test 3 and study the answer explanations.

www.petersons.com

All the Math “Review” sections.

Chapter 1: All About the PSAT/NMSQT

17

.................................................................

•

The PSAT/NMSQT is designed to be one measure of your ability to do college work.

•

Most students take the PSAT/NMSQT in mid-October of their junior year of high school.

•

At 2 hours and 5 minutes of testing time, the PSAT/NMSQT measures reasoning, reading, and math skills.

•

The test can qualify you to receive information from colleges via the College Board’s Student Search Service.

•

The test will place you in the National Merit Scholarship competition and in competition for other prestigious scholarships and special promotions.

•

Your score report, which includes your estimated SAT scores, will help you prepare for the SAT.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

SUMMING IT UP

P ART II

........................................................

DIAGNOSING STRENGTHS AND WEAKNESSES ................................................................... CHAPTER 2

Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

✁

21

.................................................................

SECTION 1 A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 4. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 21. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 22. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 23. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 24. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 17. O

A O B O C O D O E 25. O

A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 17. O

A O B O C O D O E 4. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

SECTION 2

SECTION 3 A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 21. O

A O B O C O D O E 4. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 22. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 23. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 24. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 25. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 17. O

A O B O C O D O E 26. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 27. O

www.petersons.com

answer sheet

ANSWER SHEET PRACTICE TEST 1: DIAGNOSTIC

..........................................................................................

-------------------------------------------------------------------

Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 4 A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

4.

A O

B O

C O

D O

E O

11.

12.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

13.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

14.

15.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

16.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

. O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

17.

18.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

19.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

20.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

www.petersons.com

✁

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

-------------------------------------------------------------------

22

✁

23

.................................................................

A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 27. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 28. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 29. O

4.

17.

E O

A O B O C O D O E 30. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 31. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 32. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 33. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 21. O

A O B O C O D O E 34. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 22. O

A O B O C O D O E 35. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 23. O

A O B O C O D O E 36. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 24. O

A O B O C O D O E 37. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 25. O

A O B O C O D O E 38. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 26. O

A O B O C O D O E 39. O

A O

B O

C O

D O

E O

A O

B O

C O

D O

www.petersons.com

answer sheet

SECTION 5

..........................................................................................

-------------------------------------------------------------------

Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

.............................................................................

25 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES For each question below, choose the best answer from the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Directions: Each sentence below has either one or two blanks in it and is followed by five choices, labeled (A) through (E). These choices represent words or phrases that have been left out. Choose the word or phrase that, if inserted into the sentence, would best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Canine massage is a veterinary technique for calming dogs that are extremely ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

inept disciplined controlled stressed restrained

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ C Þ Þ E Þ O O O O

1. Paradoxically, science demands of its practitioners both ______ and ______.

2. Bubonic plague, which once ______ Europe, killing millions, is now easily ______ by modern antibiotics.

(A) a controlled intellect. .a free imagination (B) dedication. .hard work (C) meticulousness. .good math skills (D) skepticism. .an inquiring mind (E) ambition. .creativity

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

devastated. .contracted sickened. .concealed shocked. .obscured captivated. .routed ravaged. .halted

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

25

practice test 1

SECTION 1

26

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

3. Because she had refined, gourmet tastes, Brenda was ______ when Trent served greasy sausage stew for lunch—she simply could not force down a bite. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

distraught scandalized revolted perplexed ecstatic

4. ______, Sir Edward grew up to be exactly like his father, whom he hated. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Obviously Arrogantly Ominously Perilously Ironically

5. Corey was the most notorious bully in the school—both ______ and ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions: Read each of the passages carefully, then answer the questions that come after them. The answer to each question may be stated overtly or only implied. You will not have to use outside knowledge to answer the questions—all the material you will need will be in the passage itself. In some cases, you will be asked to read two related passages and answer questions about their relationship to one another.

paltry. .stingy ungainly. .crude domineering. .cruel ugly. .selfish vigorous. .demanding

www.petersons.com

QUESTIONS 6–7 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. The passage is an excerpt from a short story by Edith Wharton, “The Lady’s Maid’s Bell.” Line

5

10

15

I had been [employed] near a week at Brympton before I saw my master. Word came that he was arriving one afternoon, and a change passed over the whole household. It was plain that nobody loved him below stairs. Mrs. Blinder took uncommon care with the dinner that night, but she snapped at the kitchen-maid in a way quite unusual with her; and Mr. Wace, the butler, . . . went about his duties as if he’d been getting ready for a funeral. He was a great Bible-reader, Mr. Wace was[,] . . . but that day he used such dreadful language that I was about to leave the table, when he assured me it was all out of Isaiah; and I noticed that whenever the master came Mr. Wace took to the prophets. 6. The phrase, “took to the prophets” (line 19), most likely means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

prayed. wept. swore. read the Bible aloud. lectured the other staff.

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

27

.................................................................

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

A clump of dark matter The pull of gravity A planet or galaxy A collapsed star A black hole

QUESTIONS 10–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

QUESTIONS 8–9 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

This passage is based on “Theories of the North American Trickster,” by Ake Hultkrantz.

This excerpt is from a 1993 government document, posted on the NASA Internet site.

Line

Line

5

10

15

All visible celestial objects known today account for only 10 percent of the mass in the universe. The rest of this “missing mass,” also known as “dark matter,” is presumably invisible . . . Since all visible matter is only a small fraction of the total mass in the universe, the amount of dark mass that is present will determine the evolutionary future of the universe. If there is not enough dark matter to gravitationally bind the universe together, it could continue expanding forever. If there is enough mass in the universe to gravitationally hold it together, the universe may slow down its expansion, come to a halt, and begin to contract and eventually collapse. 8. The main purpose of the passage is to speculate on the (A) composition of “dark matter.” (B) composition of “celestial objects.” (C) validity of the theory of evolution. (D) reason for the existence of the universe. (E) ultimate fate of the universe.

5

10

15

The figure of Trickster, found in myth and folklore around the world, is usually male and depicted as an animal, a spirit, or a god. He is a rule-breaker and a thief, but he is also of great benefit to humankind—both the Native American Coyote and the Greek god Prometheus, for example, are tricksters who stole fire and presented it as a gift to human beings. (In one story, however, after the humans had cooked their first meal, Coyote stole the food and ate it.) Trickster has been called a thief and gift-giver, a liar and a teller of the most uncomfortable truths; a wily mischief-maker, and creator and destroyer of worlds.

10. Which adjective best sums up all the character traits of Trickster as described in the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Deceitful Paradoxical Beneficial Mythological Mysterious

diagnostic test

(A) knew he would be hungry. (B) took pride in her work. (C) was meeting him for the first time. (D) feared his criticism. (E) was resigned to having a bad boss.

..........................................................................................

9. Which of the following is the best example of a “visible celestial object” (line 1), based on inference from the information in the passage?

7. Based on the passage, Mrs. Blinder most likely took uncommon care with the dinner that night because the master would be present, and Mrs. Blinder

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

28

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

11. The examples of Coyote and Prometheus primarily serve to (A) support the author’s statements about the Trickster figure. (B) lighten the tone of the passage. (C) demonstrate that the Trickster is a comic figure in mythology. (D) provide a vivid visual image of the Trickster. (E) compare Native American myths to Greek myths.

QUESTIONS 12–17 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

40

45

50

This passage is part of an essay written in the 1990s about the author’s grandmother. Line

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

From an early age, I knew that my grandma was different from other kids’ grandmas. She was a preacher, for one thing, back in the days when there were hardly any women preachers. Also, she was less enthusiastic about me than other kids’ grandmas were about them. Whenever she was preaching a revival near the town of Crossland where we lived, she’d always stay with us. When she arrived, she’d hug me, and tell me I’d grown, and ask me if I said my prayers and if I read my Bible, but her mind always seemed to be someplace else when I answered. Even when I recited all the books of the Old Testament for her, or said a poem such as “Richard Cory” or “The Highwayman,” the best I could get out of her was a sharp “Well, listen at that. Don’t that beat all?” When the week of revival was over, she’d leave, going back to St. Louis where she ran a mission for the lost and destitute. Crossland’s over a hundred miles from St. Louis, and Dad would offer to drive her back, but she’d always answer the same thing. “There isn’t any use of that, Clyde. The bus is just as good.” So we’d take her down to the Greyhound station and watch her hand her ticket to the uniformed driver, disappear inside and reappear to wave good-bye, her expression obscured by

www.petersons.com

55

60

65

70

75

80

85

the bus’s grimy window. Then, even before the bus got moving, she’d look away, ahead toward her real life. Leaving us behind in a bitter cloud of exhaust, the bus would cough and jolt down the narrow main street of Crossland. But I could always imagine the way it would be once it got out on the highway, gathering speed as if the wind had caught its sails, bearing Grandma back to a life as exotic to me as the deserts of Egypt. She lived in two rooms up over the mission. When Grandpa died, she had sold their home and furniture, and her only possessions were a single bed with a black iron bedstead, a shabby, faded-green, overstuffed chair, a rickety drop-leaf table, a kerosene stove, and rag rugs on the floor. It was a men’s mission, and downstairs there were always five or six old men, coughing and drinking coffee, talking to each other or to themselves, and although Grandma kept it spotless, the mission always had a sour smell. Mama and Dad would go to visit her every month, and once in a long while, if it was a holiday or Grandma’s birthday, they’d take me, but they didn’t very often. They didn’t think it was a fit place for a child. So Grandma wasn’t the pinkcheeked, twinkly-eyed grandma I read about in books, and her visits weren’t festooned with presents, or trips to the zoo, or jaunts down to the ice cream parlor, but when she came to visit she did always trail a little glamor and glory. Still, we’d all breathe a sigh of relief when she left, even Mama, whose chicken was always “a little dry, Kate, why don’t you try the oven at a slower heat? Seems like gas stoves don’t cook chicken like wood stoves used to.” Dad would be the most relieved of all to see her go, although I didn’t know it then. It was after I was grown up that he confided in me that he never had liked Grandma very much. She was too strict with Mama and made her do all the work, cooking and cleaning and keeping house for

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

29

.................................................................

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Distant Timid Hateful Folksy Devoted

13. The reader can deduce from the passage that the grandmother’s attitude toward the narrator’s mother was characterized by (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) A visit to her grandmother’s mission (B) Her grandmother’s spirituality (C) Her grandmother’s meanness (D) A physical feature her grandmother had (E) Her grandmother’s strictness 16. In the sentence “It was the reason Mama was thirty before she got married” (lines 90–91), to what does “it” refer? (A) The grandmother’s fundamentalist religion (B) The mother’s fear of the grandmother (C) The mother’s overwork in service of the grandmother (D) The father’s dislike of the grandmother (E) The mother’s choosing the grandmother’s well-being over her husband’s 17. What do the words “shot through” mean in the context of line 98? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Separated from Intermingled with Concealed by Inseparable from Alongside

ridicule. repugnance. puzzlement. disapproval. alarm.

14. As it is used in line 46, the word “exotic” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

dangerous. mysterious. outlandish. ridiculous. tedious.

diagnostic test

12. Of the following choices, which best describes the grandmother’s emotional relationship with her family?

15. Which of the following does the narrator remember most vividly about her grandmother?

..........................................................................................

Grandpa, while she was off preaching revivals. It was the reason Mama was thirty before she got married. “She never gave Kate a bit of credit,” he said. The thing I remember most vividly about Grandma (oddly, because she 95 wasn’t given to physical vanity at all) is her shining hair, which was white shot through with silver. She wore it up in braids during the day, but at 100 night sometimes I was allowed to help Mama take the pins and small tortoiseshell combs out and brush it. It tumbled to her waist, and I remember thinking she had the most beautiful 105 hair in the world. It was a task I took seriously, even though I almost always came up against a tangle, and she’d snap at me, “You’re just like Kate was when she was your age, you just have 110 to yank and pull. You never can remember I’m tender-headed.” 90

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

30

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

QUESTIONS 18–25 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. This passage is adapted from The Myth of Culture by Jo Lynn Southard, J.D., LL.M. Line

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

Oppression of women is embedded in most, if not all, societies, its message usually couched in terms of the protection and promotion of traditional cultural practices. These practices are presented as natural and unremarkable, inherently beneficial to society by virtue simply of their connection with the past, with tradition. The call to preserve traditional cultural practices can wield enormous power, and it can be easily manipulated by those in power. In 1963, in the United States, Betty Friedan wrote of what she called the “feminine mystique,” which referred to the tradition (at that time pretty much unexamined—in fact, Friedan called it “the problem that has no name”)—that being a wife and mother was a woman’s highest and only calling. It is a message still alive today, one that dies hard and severely limits women’s life choices. In other cultures the message is much the same, sometimes going so far as to harshly limit what a woman can wear in public, where she can travel, whether she can receive an education, whether she can work outside the home, and even whether she is to be allowed to learn to read and write. Time and again, in wars and revolutions, women are welcomed into the struggle for freedom from oppression, only to be forced back into the private realm when freedom is attained. In the midst of a struggle or immediately after a change in power in a country, women are told that their particular issues must wait while the more pressing, “larger” issues are addressed. Meanwhile, women are urged to return to the home to fulfill their traditional roles, one of which is to replenish a population decimated by the struggle itself. As a result, women’s issues—issues that affect half the population—never really become a priority.

www.petersons.com

International human rights law itself does far too little to respond to the needs particular to women. Until very recently, virtually all precepts of international law ignored the concept of gender discrimination. Genocide, persecution, torture, and refugee status 55 are still mostly defined by race, religion, nationality, ethnicity, or membership in a particular social or political group. While all women fit into one or more of those groups, by 60 definition these human rights abuses cannot be said to be committed against women because of their gender, but rather are committed against all people. Human rights abuses against 65 women as women (from denial of basic education or the right to travel up to, until very recently, such heinous abuses as rape and mutilation) are pretty much ignored. In fact, even the 70 Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women did not mandate the inclusion of women in the process of implementing the treaty. Decision-making, even 75 when it comes to decisions about ending their own oppression, is simply not viewed as a woman’s “place.” The decisions for ending discrimination under the treaty were and are made, in 80 the main, by those who created and perpetuated the cultural traditions that enabled discrimination and abuse to happen in the first place. The traditions of the culture into 85 which we are born have great influence over how we live our lives. Traditionally, most, if not all, cultures have defined themselves from the point of view of the males in power. And it is 90 natural for those who have power— even if they are kindly and wellmeaning in other ways—to want to keep that power. Patriarchy is the general rule in the public realm of 95 government and religion, as well as in the private realm of the home. All of us receive messages about how we are to fit into our worlds—and, if we are 100 women, the traditional fit may be in serious need of alteration. 50

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

31

.................................................................

19. In the context of the passage, which of the following best explains Friedan’s term, “the problem that has no name”? (A) In Friedan’s time, the problems specific to wives and mothers were kept secret. (B) At the time Friedan wrote, problems specific to women were ridiculed, so women were embarrassed to speak of them. (C) At the time the phrase was coined, the problem of the severe limitations placed on women’s lives was not generally recognized. (D) In Friedan’s time, women’s problems were not spoken of for fear that the men in power would retaliate. (E) In Friedan’s time, women were more satisfied with their lot than they are today and so did not speak out about their problems.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

An integral part of An acknowledged part of A shameful part of Written into the laws of Kept a secret from

21. In the context of the passage, the phrase “abuses against women as women” (lines 65–66) most nearly means (A) sexual abuse. (B) abuse that can happen to both men and women. (C) domestic abuse. (D) abuse that, for the most part, happens only to women. (E) abuse that is not taken seriously by men. 22. The author suggests that males in power tend to be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

affluent. insolent. brutal. passive. self-serving.

23. Why has the author put quotation marks around the word “place” in line 78? (A) The usage of the word in this sentence is ungrammatical. (B) The word is from another source. (C) The usage of the word in this sentence is faintly mocking. (D) The word is used in this sentence for a humorous effect. (E) The usage in this sentence is trite.

diagnostic test

(A) In virtually all cultures, and even in the realm of international human rights law itself, women are excluded by tradition from making decisions about their own lives. (B) All over the world, women are being raped and mutilated, practices to which the males in power, and even international human rights law itself, turn a blind eye. (C) Cultural traditions hold society together and have powerful influence over the lives and well-being of women, overriding even the sphere of international human rights law. (D) Oppression of women is commonplace, and until those in power are willing to do something about it, women will be abused and consequently suffer greatly. (E) During wars and revolutions women are valued, but afterward they are not, a tradition that should be addressed by international human rights law.

20. What is the meaning of the phrase “embedded in” as it is used in the first paragraph?

..........................................................................................

18. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

32

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

24. In line 3, the word “couched” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

revised. illustrated. negated. denied. framed.

STOP

25. Reference to the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (lines 71–73) primarily serves to (A) make the writing style of the essay more appealing. (B) achieve better overall organization of ideas in the essay. (C) provide a concrete example to support the main point of the essay. (D) cause the essay to seem more scholarly by appealing to authority. (E) end the essay on a more optimistic note.

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

33

.................................................................

Solve problems 1–20, then select the best of the choices given for each one and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. You may use available space on the page for scratchwork. Notes: 1. You may use a calculator. All of the numbers used are real numbers.

Reference Information

2. You may use the figures that accompany the problems to help you find the solution. Unless the instructions say that a figure is not drawn to scale, assume that it has been drawn accurately. Each figure lies in a plane unless the instructions say otherwise.

1.

r

w

h w

h b

A 5 pr2 C 5 2pr

r

h b

c a

2x

60

x s

2s

45

30

45

3x

s

1

bh V 5 ,wh V 5 pr2h c2 5 a2 1 b2 Special Right Triangles 2 The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

1 3

3

3 5

3

A 5 ,w

5 7

3

7 9

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

9 3

(B)

15 35

(C)

63 35

(E)

(A)

945

2. What is the value of

SD 5

3

c 5 25?

2 3 4 5 6

730,000 732,000 732,500 733,000 740,000

4. If Sally walks at an average speed of c miles per hour, how many miles does she walk in 4 hours?

63 3

(D)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

3. What is 732,471 rounded to the nearest thousand?

5

1

(A)

if

A5

SD 1

3

c

(B)

4 c c 4

(C) 4c (D) 4 2 c (E) 4 1 c

diagnostic test

20 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES

..........................................................................................

SECTION 2

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

34

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

5. If a hiker can travel at a steady rate 3 of 15 minutes per mile, how many 4 hours would it take to walk 9 miles? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1.8 2 3 4 6.75

6. When a positive number is added to the square of that number, the result is 42. What is the number? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2 3 4 5 6

7. What is the least positive integer x, such that | 3 2 x| ≥ 4? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

6 7 8 9 10

8. A rectangle is 3 inches wide and 4 inches long. Find the length of the diagonal of this rectangle. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

9. In the following figure, line c intersects the parallel lines a and b. What is the measure of angle b?

4.25 5 6 7 7.5

www.petersons.com

a b c

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

110° 120° 130° 140° 150°

10. Which of the following is a simplified 5x2 1 12x 1 4 ? form of x2 2 4 (A) (B) (C)

5x 1 2 x22 5~x2 1 2! x12 5~x 1 2!~x 1 6! x2 2 2

(D) 5x 1 2 (E) x 1 2 11. If one of the angles of an isosceles triangle is 18°, which of the following could be another angle of the triangle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

72° 78° 81° 108° 162°

12. The perimeter of a circular building measures 158 feet. What is the approximate radius of the building’s outer wall? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

7 25 50 76 101

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

35

.................................................................

x≥7 x50 27 , x , 7 27 , x , 0 x ≤ 27

14. What is 7% of 60? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

.42 4.2 8.57 11.67 42

x x x x x

5 5 5 5 5

.04 .17 .179 .192 .1912

20. If three different numbers are chosen, one from each of the following sets, what is the least sum these numbers could have? C 5 {2,4,6} D 5 {5,6,7}

15. Which of the following are solutions to the equation (x 2 a)(x 2 b) 5 0? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2a and x 5 2b a and x 5 b ab (2a)(2b) 2a 1 2b

E 5 {2,5,9} (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

9 11 13 15 16

16. If a circle has a diameter of 10 inches, how many square inches is the area of the circle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

5p 12p 25p 50p 100p

17. If x 1 y 5 4, then y2 5 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

16 2 x2 x2 2 16 x2 1 8x 1 16 16 2 8x 1 x2 16 1 8x 2 x2

18. If 27 , x , 24, which of the following could be a value of 5x? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

25.50 26.25 212.75 219 221.50

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

19. Which of the following numbers is greatest?

..........................................................................................

13. The =x27 is a real number if and only if

36

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 3 27 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES Directions: Each sentence below has either one or two blanks in it and is followed by five choices, labeled (A) through (E). These choices represent words or phrases that have been left out. Choose the word or phrase that, if inserted into the sentence, would best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Canine massage is a veterinary technique for calming dogs that are extremely ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

inept disciplined controlled stressed restrained

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ C Þ Þ E Þ O O O O

1. Because the brain tends to play tricks on us, sometimes we cannot tell whether what we see is ______ or ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

perceived. .received fanciful. .imaginary disguised. .credible reliable. .stable substantial. .illusory

2. The rapid, ______ pace of the modern world has affected people so ______ that many seek chemical antidotes in order to achieve a sense of well-being and peace. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

fast-paced. .definitely upbeat. .powerfully energetic. .negatively manic. .vigorously frenzied. .adversely

www.petersons.com

3. In some corporations today, the Chief Executive Officer earns more than 400 times as much as the typical production worker—a practice that some find flagrantly unfair, in fact downright ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

snobbish deranged marginal prosperous egregious

4. Humankind has evolved to the point where 3 billion people are interconnected—by newspaper, telephone, television, computer, satellite systems—leading one to believe that we have an inborn need to exchange information, to ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

transmit announce communicate dominate reflect

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

37

.................................................................

inspiring engrossing boring entertaining educational

6. Although psychics, mediums, and other believers in the occult sometimes quote psychoanalyst Carl Jung to ______ their claims, in reality many of his theories work to ______ them. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

refute. .support bolster. .debunk enhance. .surpass embellish. .answer fulfill. .execute

7. Formerly ______ as a heretic, Galileo is now ______ as a great man of science. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

imprisoned. .surpassed hailed. .decried scorned. .derided persecuted. .revered recognized. .acclaimed

QUESTIONS 9–10 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. This passage is from an excerpt of UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan’s Nobel Peace Prize lecture on December 10, 2001. Line

5

10

15

Today’s real borders are not between nations, but between powerful and powerless, free and fettered, privileged and humiliated. Today, no walls can separate . . . human rights crises in one part of the world from national security crises in another. . . . Scientists tell us that the world of nature is so small and interdependent that a butterfly flapping its wings in the Amazon rain forest can generate a violent storm on the other side of the earth. This principle is known as the “Butterfly Effect.” Today we realize, perhaps more than ever, that the world of human activity also has its own “Butterfly Effect”—for better or worse.

8. Optical illusions ______ our senses. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

disengage infuriate confound embody elucidate

9. Which best illustrates the main idea of the passage? (A) The fate of human beings is inseparable from the fate of nature. (B) Global weather patterns are sensitive to very small changes. (C) The most significant division in the world is between the powerful and the powerless. (D) Injustice in a distant part of the world can bring insecurity to our own. (E) National borders are no longer important.

diagnostic test

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions: Read each of the passages carefully, and answer the questions that come after them. Base your answers on what is stated or implied, as well as any introductory material provided.

..........................................................................................

5. Because Armand found his book so ______, he did not see the oncoming train.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

38

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

10. The tone of the passage can best be described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

stunned. irritable. impassive. sincere. jubilant.

QUESTIONS 11–12 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

QUESTIONS 13–15 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. This passage is an excerpt from an essay by Max Beerbohm, “In Homes Unblest” (1919). Line

5

This passage is adapted from an entry in the online encyclopedia Wikipedia.

Line

5

10

15

Graffiti is subject to different societal pressures than are popularly recognized art forms, since graffiti appears on walls, freeways, buildings, trains or any accessible surfaces that are not owned by, or under the control of, the person who applies the graffiti. . . . Spray paint and broad permanent markers are commonly used, and the organizational structure of the art is sometimes influenced by the need to apply the art quickly before it is noticed by authorities. In an effort to reduce vandalism, many cities have designated walls or areas exclusively for use by graffiti artists. This . . . encourages artists to take their time and produce great art, without worry of being caught or arrested.

11. Based on the tone and content of the passage, which is most likely the author’s attitude toward graffiti artists? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Disapproving Respectful Indifferent Reverent Puzzled

12. The passage suggests that, because of “societal pressures,” graffiti art tends to be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

permanent. rushed. ugly. great. inferior.

www.petersons.com

10

15

Nothing is more pleasant than to see suddenly endowed with motion a thing stagnant by nature. The hat that on the head of the man in the street is nothing to us, how much it is if it be animated by a gust of wind! . . . Conversely, nothing is more dismal than to see set in permanent rigidness a thing whose aspect is linked for us with the idea of great mobility. Even the blithest of us and least easily depressed would make a long detour to avoid a stuffed squirrel or a case of pinned butterflies. And you can well imagine with what a sinking of the heart I beheld, this morning, on a road near the coast of Norfolk, a railway-car without wheels.

13. What is the meaning of the word “stagnant,” as used in the passage (line 3)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Stale Inert Silent Heavy Numb

14. Which is the main reason the author finds the railway car depressing? (A) It is ugly, shabby, and broken. (B) It is ancient and entirely useless. (C) It was designed for motion but cannot move. (D) It can no longer carry passengers as it used to. (E) It reminds him of bygone days.

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

39

.................................................................

From The Origins of Species by Charles Darwin. Line

5

Passage 1 From Steep Trails by John Muir. Line

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

Nature is a good mother, and sees well to the clothing of her many bairns— birds with smoothly imbricated feathers, beetles with shining jackets, and bears with shaggy furs. In the tropical south, where the sun warms like a fire, they are allowed to go thinly clad; but in the snowy northland she takes care to clothe warmly. The squirrel has socks and mittens, and a tail broad enough for a blanket; the grouse is densely feathered down to the ends of his toes; and the wild sheep, besides his undergarment of fine wool, has a thick overcoat of hair that sheds off both the snow and the rain. Other provisions and adaptations in the dresses of animals, relating less to climate than to the more mechanical circumstances of life, are made with the same consummate skill that characterizes all the love work of Nature. Land, water, and air, jagged rocks, muddy ground, sand beds, forests, underbrush, grassy plains, etc., are considered in all their possible combinations while the clothing of her beautiful wildlings is preparing. No matter what the circumstances of their lives may be, she never allows them to go dirty or ragged. The mole, living always in the dark and in the dirt, is yet as clean as the otter or the wavewashed seal; and our wild sheep, wading in snow, roaming through bushes, and leaping among jagged storm-beaten cliffs, wears a dress so exquisitely adapted to its mountain life that it is always found as unruffled and stainless as a bird.

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

A struggle for existence inevitably follows from the high rate at which all organic beings tend to increase. Every being, which during its natural lifetime produces several eggs or seeds, must suffer destruction during some period of its life, and during some season or occasional year, otherwise, on the principle of geometrical increase, its numbers would quickly become so inordinately great that no country could support the product. Hence, as more individuals are produced than can possibly survive, there must in every case be a struggle for existence, either one individual with another of the same species, or with the individuals of distinct species, or with the physical conditions of life. It is the doctrine of Malthus applied with manifold force to the whole animal and vegetable kingdoms; for in this case there can be no artificial increase of food, and no prudential restraint from marriage. Although some species may be now increasing, more or less rapidly, in numbers, all cannot do so, for the world would not hold them. . . . There is no exception to the rule that every organic being naturally increases at so high a rate, that if not destroyed, the earth would soon be covered by the progeny of a single pair. Even slow-breeding man has doubled in twenty-five years, and at this rate, in a few thousand years, there would literally not be standing room for his progeny. Linnaeus has calculated that if an annual plant produced only two seeds and there is no plant so unproductive as this and their seedlings next year produced two, and so on, then in twenty years there would be a million plants. . . . Lighten any check, mitigate the destruction ever so little, and the number of the species will almost instantaneously increase to any amount. The face of Nature may be

diagnostic test

(A) made animate by an outside force. (B) immobilized by an outside force. (C) changed in some permanent way. (D) mobile in its natural state. (E) in a state unnatural to it.

Passage 2

..........................................................................................

15. As described in the passage, the hat and the squirrel are similar in that each is

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

40

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

50

compared to a yielding surface, with ten thousand sharp wedges packed close together and driven inwards by incessant blows, sometimes one wedge being struck, and then another with greater force.

16. What is the meaning of the word “bairns” in line 2 of the first passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Duties Loves Travels Children Apects

17. What is the main idea of Passage 1? (A) A benevolent God watches over all things. (B) All members of the wildlife kingdom are happy. (C) Nature is beautiful in all seasons. (D) Nature benevolently clothes all living things. (E) All birds and animals adapt to the changing seasons. 18. In Passage 1, the phrase “Other provisions and adaptations” (lines 16–17) refers to the fact that each animal (A) is “clothed” so that it can endure, no matter how harsh the weather. (B) is “clothed” with an eye to its specific habitat (forest, cliff, water, etc.). (C) has enough provisions so it can be fed in all seasons. (D) has a protective living space. (E) has some camouflage to hide it from predators.

www.petersons.com

19. What is the main idea of Passage 2? (A) Evolution cannot take place without struggle between individuals. (B) Every organism on Earth must suffer and die. (C) Unless individuals are destroyed, whole species will perish from overabundance. (D) Nature is cruel and cares nothing for the individual. (E) Unless “slow breeding man” stops reproducing at such a rapid rate, the human species won’t even have standing room on the earth. 20. If the author of Passage 2 were writing today, which of the following problems could he most effectively use to support the ideas in the first paragraph? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Violent crime Terrorism Overpopulation Racial tension Weakening of the family

21. Which of the following statements is most likely part of the “doctrine of Malthus” (line 20), as discussed in the context of Passage 2? (A) The concept of evolution is open to question. (B) Unchecked reproduction will lead to disaster. (C) Marriage imposes unnatural restraints on human reproduction. (D) Some species are increasing too rapidly, while others are dying off. (E) The animal and vegetable kingdoms are equally significant.

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

41

.................................................................

Remove any obstacle. Alleviate any suffering. Encourage any hope. Take away any privilege. Handicap any individual.

23. In the context of Passage 2, the phrase in lines 24–25, “no prudential restraint from marriage,” means that, unlike humans, the lower animals (A) are completely amoral. (B) do not usually form bonds beyond the mother-offspring bond. (C) do not usually live in what humans would call a “family.” (D) do not usually mate for life. (E) have no societal customs or mores against unlimited breeding. 24. Based on the content of both passages, on which of the following statements would the authors of Passage 1 and Passage 2 be most likely to disagree?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

obsessive. infuriating. spiritual. pompous. sentimental.

26. Based on the content of the passages alone, the author of Passage 1 would most likely say that the attitude toward nature expressed in Passage 2 is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

remorseful. harsh. complacent. ironic. sophomoric.

27. Both authors would most likely say that the intensive study of nature is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

futile. worthwhile. arduous. effortless. irreligious.

(A) There is no God. (B) There should be a limit to the speed of human reproduction. (C) Science can remedy many of the ills of the world. (D) Human beings are more important than other species. (E) Nature cares about the individual.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

25. Based on his beliefs as expressed in the passage, the author of Passage 2 would most likely say that the author of Passage 1 is

..........................................................................................

22. What is the meaning of the phrase “Lighten any check” as it is used in the second paragraph of Passage 2?

42

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 4 20 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES

This section is made up of two types of questions, multiple choice—10 questions—and Student-Produced Response—10 questions. You have 25 minutes to complete the section. You may use available space on the page for scratchwork. Notes: 1. You may use a calculator. All of the numbers used are real numbers.

Reference Information

2. You may use the figures that accompany the problems to help you find the solution. Unless the instructions say that a figure is not drawn to scale, assume that it has been drawn accurately. Each figure lies in a plane unless the instructions say otherwise.

r

A 5 pr2 C 5 2pr

w

h w

h b

r

h b

c a

2x

60

x s

2s

45

30

45

3x

s

1

bh V 5 ,wh V 5 pr2h c2 5 a2 1 b2 Special Right Triangles 2 The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180. A 5 ,w

A5

1. Given 3x 2 4 5 8, find x 1 1. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

3 4 5 6 7

2. Find A∩B, given A 5 {0, 1 , 2, 4} and B 5 {0, 1, 3, 4}. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

{0, 1, 4} {0, 1} {2, 3} {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} {0}

www.petersons.com

3. Find the third term of the geometric sequence whose first two terms are 8, 2. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1 2 1 4 1 8 1 16 1 32

4. Given x 1 2 5 3 and 3y 1 9 5 18, find x 1 y. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

3 4 5 6 7

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

43

.................................................................

6p 12p 18p 36p 144p

x

6. Given the following diagram, find a. Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

45° 52° 53° 63° 66°

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

12 10 8 5 4

10. In the following diagram, find BC, given AC 5 12, AD 5 18, and BD 5 10.

A

B C

7. Let z equal the sum of .4 and its reciprocal. Find z. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

4.4 2.9 1.20 0.65 0.44

8. Let x ∋ y 5 (x3)(y) for all real values of x and y. Find y 1 (x∋y), for x 5 21. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

D

AC = 12 AD = 18 Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

4 5 6 7 8

6 2 1 0 21

diagnostic test

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

9. Given the following figure, find x.

..........................................................................................

5. Points C and D lie on a circle. Line segment CD passes through the center of the circle. The length of CD is 12. What is the area of the circle?

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

44

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

QUESTIONS 11–20 REQUIRE YOU TO SOLVE THE PROBLEMS, THEN ENTER YOUR ANSWERS BY MARKING OVALS IN THE SPECIAL GRID, AS SHOWN IN THE EXAMPLES BELOW.

10

-

www.petersons.com

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

45

.................................................................

12. What is the product of 5% of 7 and 7% of 5?

17. What is one possible value for x if 1 1 ,x, ? 8 5

13. The sum of the length of three sides of a cube is 15 inches. What is the volume of the cube?

14. The average of 4 numbers is 8.5. Three of the numbers are 3, 7, and 9. What is the fourth number?

15. A container of apples sells for $6, 4 which is of the original asking 5 price. What was the original price?

18. If 3x 5 27, what is the value of 2x

1 1

?

19. .003 is the same as the ratio of 3 to what number?

20. The area of square ABCD is equal to the area of rectangle EFGH. If CD 5 4 feet and EF 5 2 feet, what is the length of the rectangle’s perimeter, in feet? B

C

F

G

A

D

E

H

Note: Figures not drawn to scale.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

16. Sixty-five percent of a group of students pass their driving test. If 260 people pass this test, how many took the test?

..........................................................................................

11. Let function f be defined by f(x) 5 x2 1 6. If n is a positive number such that f (3n) 5 3f(n), what is the value of n2?

46

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 5 39 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES Directions: The following questions will test your knowledge of grammar, usage, diction, and idiom. Some sentences are correct. No sentence contains multiple errors. In each sentence below, five elements, labeled (A) through (E), are underlined and lettered. One (and ONLY one) of the underlined elements may contain an error. In choosing your answer, be sure to follow the rules of standard written English. You can assume that the parts of the sentences not underlined are correct. If the sentence has no error, choose Þ E , “No error.” O Example: My dog Sally and my cat Buster gets along well with each other, eating A B and sleeping together, playing quietly, C and sharing their food and treats. D No error. E Sample Answer: B Þ C Þ D Þ E Þ Þ O O O O

1. The cuttlefish, which looks A something like a large squid, is B highly intelligent and, like the C octopus, was a member of the order D of cephalopods. No error. E 2. Dashing out of the chapel, the rain A fell lightly on our heads, so B we hastened to the car to be whisked C away to our honeymoon cottage. D No error. E

www.petersons.com

3. There will be a full moon on HallowA een night, according with the almaB nac, so werewolves and vampires C will be out in force. No error. D E 4. Baxter screamed when he saw the A snake in his footlocker, as he was B C opening it to get out his pajamas. D No error. E

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

47

.................................................................

Superman, though one is real and A one fictional, are both a superhero in B C many people’s eyes. No error. D E 7. Dr. Martin stood accused with A malpractice when he accidentally cut B off a patient’s nose during surgery. C D No error. E 8. My dog Zelda’s tricks are far more A B dazzling and complicated than your dog Rex, which proves that C Zelda is the more clever of the two. D No error. E 9. Bachelor parties should never be A held on the night before the B wedding because the groom C will need time to rest up. No error. D E 10. The three of them, Marge, Janelle, and Rosemary, has dinner once a A week, rain or shine, at the Pizza B C Palace over on Lafayette Street. D No error. E

and a single spiral horn growing out C of the middle of their foreheads. D No error. E 12. After you see the film The Blair A Witch Project, most people don’t want B to walk in the woods at night for C awhile, for fear of evil forces. D No error. E 13. I informed the police that there were A people living in my attic, who B rummaged around in my refrigerator C during the night, but the police refused to take action. No error. D E 14. The City has distributed standardA ized recycling containers with all B households, along with explicit C directions for their use. No error. D E 15. One of the most dangerous phenomA ena a firefighter will ever face is the B backdraft, which can occur during C the smoldering phase of a fire after the fire appeared to be out. No error. D E

diagnostic test

6. General Colin Powell and

11. In medieval fable, the unicorn is A sometimes described as a white deer B with a horse’s mane, cloven hooves,

..........................................................................................

5. Frederich Nietzsche wrote his famous A book about Richard Wagner B some years before he descended into C D madness. No error. E

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

48

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

16. By their driving tests, students A are to drive between two parallel B rows of cones, as shown in the C diagram on page 5, without knocking over any of the D cones. No error. E 17. Workers cannot be productive or A happy in their jobs if they are in B physical pain, so progressive offices C today are constructed with an eye to D ergonomics. No error. E

www.petersons.com

18. According to some physicists, apA proximately 1 million years after the B big bang, the universe cooled to about 3000° C (5000° F), and protons C and electrons combine to make D hydrogen atoms. No error. E 19. Of metabolism, the body uses oxygen A and produces carbon dioxide, and it is important that these B two gases maintain a normal state C of equilibrium. No error. D E

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

49

.................................................................

Choose the answer that best expresses the meaning of the original sentence. If in your opinion the original sentence is the best option, choose it. Your choice should produce the most effective sentence. Example: I am going to the store to buy a food item, which is bread. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

buy buy buy buy buy

a food item, which is bread a food item, bread bread a food item, which is called bread what is called bread

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ Þ D Þ E Þ O O O O

20. At this point in time, dogs are not allowed anywhere within the confines of Higgins Beach. (A) At this point in time, dogs are not allowed anywhere within the confines of Higgins Beach. (B) At this point in time, dogs are not allowed on Higgins Beach. (C) Dogs are not allowed on Higgins Beach. (D) Dogs are not allowed within the confines of Higgins Beach. (E) On Higgins Beach, dogs are not allowed within the confines.

21. To celebrate winning the big game, a wild party, that got out of hand, was thrown by Bad Bob Bellows, the team manager. (A) a wild party, that got out of hand, was thrown by Bad Bob Bellows, the team manager. (B) a wild party was thrown by Bad Bob Bellows, the team manager, that got out of hand. (C) an out of hand, wild party was thrown by Bad Bob Bellows, the team manager. (D) Bad Bob Bellows, the team manager, threw a wild party that got out of hand. (E) Bad Bob Bellows, the team manager, threw a wild party (it got out of hand).

diagnostic test

Each of the following sentences is either underlined or contains an underlined part. Under each sentence, there are five ways of phrasing the underlined portion. Choice (A) repeats the original; the other four options are different. You can assume that the elements that are not underlined are correct.

..........................................................................................

Directions: The sentences below test correctness and effectiveness of expression. When you choose your answers, select the sentence or sentence part that is most clear and correct and that conforms best to the requirements of standard written English.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

50

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

22. Too much credence was given by the police to Lefty’s statement. (A) Too much credence was given by the police to Lefty’s statement. (B) Lefty’s statement, by the police, was given too much credence. (C) The police gave Lefty’s statement too much credence. (D) Too much credence, by the police, was given to Lefty’s statement. (E) Lefty’s statement was given, by the police, too much credence. 23. Two great rationalist mathematicians, Descartes and Leibniz, believed the world could be fully explained by use of reason alone. (A) Two great rationalist mathematicians, Descartes and Leibniz, believed the world could be fully explained by use of reason alone. (B) Two great rationalist mathematicians believed they and others could fully explain the world by use of reason alone—Descartes and Leibniz. (C) That the world could be fully explained by use of reason alone were two rationalist mathematicians, Descartes and Leibniz, who were both great. (D) Two great rationalist mathematicians, believing that the world could be fully explained by use of reason alone, were Descartes and Leibniz. (E) By reason alone, two great rationalists, Descartes and Leibniz, could understand the world, so they thought.

www.petersons.com

24. Some physicists believe that the Universe will end “not with a bang but a whimper;” however, I don’t buy it. (A) I don’t buy it. (B) I reject the notion out of hand in its entirety. (C) I oppugn that presumption. (D) I disagree. (E) I am not of that precise persuasion. 25. In John Milton’s epic poem, “Paradise Lost,” Satan declares that it is preferable to rule in Hell than go to Heaven as a loser. (A) it is preferable to rule in Hell than go to Heaven as a loser (B) it is better to reign in Hell than serve in Heaven (C) to lead in Hell is better than to be a heavenly servant (D) it is better to dominate in Hell than be a follower in Heaven (E) to enforce the rules in Hell is good, unlike being a follower in Heaven 26. People constantly deny responsibility, even though they profess belief in freedom of the will. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

responsibility, even though responsibility; even though responsibility! Even though responsibility. Even though responsibility? Even though

27. The amusement park’s Wild Earthworm ride was dangerous over the Spitting Frog. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

dangerous over more dangerous than dangerouser than dangerous beyond dangerous above

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

51

.................................................................

double or doppelganger, has double, or doppelganger has double, or doppelganger. Has double or doppelganger has double, or doppelganger, has

29. Nigerian poet Chinua Achebe maintains that the colonial regime in Africa was not a democratic system and the most extreme form of totalitarianism. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

and so but yet nor

30. If Shakespeare had lived in the present day, he loved the movies, especially the special effects. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

loved loves will love would be loving would have loved

31. Why did you betray me and ruin my life and my career? (A) Why did you betray me and ruin my life and my career? (B) Did you betray me and ruin my life and my career, why? (C) Why did you betray me and ruin my life, to say nothing of my career? (D) My life and my career have been ruined by you, and why? (E) Why, did you betray me and ruin my life and my career? 32. Consciousness is one of the most baffling of the brain’s mysteries and it may well never be fully explained. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

and it may well and may and it may and it also may but may

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Why Why Why Why Why

did Weldon, wear that did, Weldon, wear that did Weldon wear, that did Weldon wear that did, Weldon wear that

Directions: The following passage is from an essay in its early stages. Some of it may need revision. Read the passage below and answer the questions that come after it. Some of the questions will ask you to improve sentence structure and word choice. Other questions will refer to parts of the essay or to the entire essay and ask you to improve organization and development. Base your decisions on the rules of standard written English, and mark your answer in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. QUESTIONS 34–39 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. (1) Many early fans of jazz musician Miles Davis became aggravated and upset as they watched their hero change through the years. (2) The change involved not only the type of music he played but the way he behaved on-stage. (3) Miles Dewey Davis was born May 25, 1926, in Alton, Illinois. (4) He grew up in East St. Louis. (5) He was given his first trumpet at the age of 13, and, in 1945, enrolled in the Juilliard School of Music. (6) Once in New York, Miles, in his own words, “followed [jazz great Charlie Parker] around down to 52nd Street,” every night. (7) New York night life was interesting to the young jazz musician. (8) He’d write down Parker’s chords and the next day play them in the practice rooms at Juilliard, instead of going to classes. (9) Miles gradually, however, completely and finally broke away from the hard, aggressive temperament of the former bebop tradition. (10) He moved to a more subtle, cool, sometimes even gentle, kind of jazz, characterized by his Birth of the Cool album in 1949–50. (11) Later works, such as “Stella

diagnostic test

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

33. Why did Weldon, wear that hideous suit to the swearing-in ceremony?

..........................................................................................

28. Throughout history, the idea that each of us has a phantom double or doppelganger, has persisted.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

52

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

by Starlight,” “Round About Midnight,“ his Kind of Blue album in 1959, and his Sketches of Spain album in 1960, continued to reveal a more gentle, open, and melodic musical style. (12) In his early days, Miles’s behavior was reserved. (13) He avoided interviews where he could and did not even respond to applause, remaining off stage unless he was playing. (14) By the late 1970s, however, when he had attained what some have termed a cult following of younger fans, he became more unguarded in manner, smiling and shaking hands with fans nearest the stage, waving to the audience, and giving generous, genial interviews. (15) Even the way he behaved in public changed over the years. 34. Logically, the final sentence should be placed before (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

sentence sentence sentence sentence sentence

8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

35. To improve unity, which of the following sentences would be the best one to delete from the second paragraph? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Sentence Sentence Sentence Sentence Sentence

www.petersons.com

3 4 5 6 7

36. Which of the following best spells out the writer’s purpose in the final paragraph? (A) Miles Davis is an important figure in the history of music, equal in rank to Charlie Parker and other jazz greats. (B) Over the course of his career, Miles Davis changed, in both his musical and his personal style. (C) Miles Davis’s music was at first hard and aggressive, influenced by the early bebop tradition. (D) Miles Davis’s later music was subtle and gentle, as exemplified by his albums Birth of the Cool and Sketches of Spain. (E) Miles Davis was changeable throughout his lifetime, his behavior on stage constantly surprising and upsetting. 37. Which of the following is the best revision of Sentence 9? (A) As it is now (B) Gradually, however, Miles broke away from the hard, aggressive temperament of the bebop tradition. (C) Miles gradually broke away and distanced himself from the hard, aggressive temperament of the bebop tradition. (D) The hard, aggressive temperament of the bebop tradition, however, Miles gradually broke away from. (E) The hard, aggressive temperament of the bebop tradition, however, was finally broken away from by Miles.

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

53

.................................................................

STOP

(A) Miles Dewey Davis was born May 25, 1926, and, being born in Alton, Illinois, grew up in East St. Louis. (B) Miles Dewey Davis grew up in East St. Louis and was born May 25, 1926, in Alton, Illinois. (C) Growing up in East St. Louis, Miles Dewey Davis was born May 25, 1926, in Alton, Illinois. (D) Born May 25, 1926, in Alton, Illinois, Miles Dewey Davis grew up in East St. Louis. (E) Miles Dewey Davis: Born May 25, 1926, in Alton, Illinois; grew up in East St. Louis.

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

(A) Even though Miles’s music departed from its traditions, bebop continued to be a driving force in jazz and remains so to this day. (B) Charlie Parker’s influence on Miles Davis is emphasized in most of the biographies Miles’s life has inspired. (C) It was Miles’s father who bought him his first trumpet and who enabled him to attend Juilliard. (D) In spite of the changes that upset many of his early fans, Miles remained a formidable creative force in jazz throughout his career. (E) Moving from East St. Louis to New York City must have been a shock to the young Miles.

39. In the context of the passage, which of the following is the best way to combine sentences 3 and 4?

..........................................................................................

38. Which of the following sentences, if added, would most logically conclude the final paragraph?

54

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS Section 1 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A E C E C

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

C D E C B

11. A 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. D

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

C B A C A

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

D E C E C

1. The correct answer is (A). The word paradoxically is a signal that the first phrase must contrast to the second. Only choice (A) contains truly contrasting elements—the words controlled and free are opposites. 2. The correct answer is (E). The key words here are once and now, which hint that there are contrasting elements in the sentence. Ask yourself: What is the difference between bubonic plague then and now? Note that the first word in all the choices, except for (D), fits the sentence, so you have to move on to the second word to get the answer. 3. The correct answer is (C). The first word because is, of course, a clue that you are dealing with cause and effect. Ask yourself: What would the serving of greasy sausage stew most likely cause Brenda to be? Keep in mind that you are to choose not just a possible answer, but the BEST answer. (Brenda might possibly be distraught by the meal, but the word greasy points more logically to the word revolted.) 4. The correct answer is (E). What will help you most here is a good vocabulary, so that you’ll know that the word ironically describes a situation in which what is expected and what actually occurs are incongruous or do not seem to fit. 5. The correct answer is (C). This is a definition question, and again you’ll need a wide vocabulary. A bully, of course, is the mean guy at school who beats you up and steals your lunch money. The other choices may describe the person Corey, but only choice (C) describes a bully. 6. The correct answer is (C). The phrase is a joke, based on Mr. Wace’s excusing his dreadful language (actually caused by his dislike of the master) by saying he was only quoting the prophet Isaiah. 7. The correct answer is (D). The arrival of the master causes in Mrs. Blinder such distress that there seems little reason, other than fear, for her to take special care with the dinner. The passage says that nobody loved the master, so it’s unlikely Mrs. Blinder would care if he were hungry, choice (A). The passage does not mention how Mrs. Blinder feels about her work, choice (B). It is the narrator, not Mrs. Blinder, who is meeting the master for the first time, choice (C). Mrs. Blinder’s unusual irritation at the kitchen-maid implies she is on edge, not resigned, choice (E).

www.petersons.com

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

55

.................................................................

10. The correct answer is (B). The Trickster performs paradoxical actions, such as giving the gift of fire and then stealing the meal that the gift receivers cooked using the fire. Choices (A) and (C) are each only partial qualities of the Trickster, and do not sum up all of the charter’s traits. Choice (D) is incorrect because mythological is not a character trait. Choice (E) is incorrect because the passage does not describe the Trickster as mysterious. 11. The correct answer is (A). In the passage, the author states that the Trickster is of great benefit to humankind, and supports this statement by explaining that Coyote and Prometheus stole fire and gave it to humans. Choices (B) and (C) are incorrect because there is nothing funny about this part of the passage and so there is no reason to think the author was trying to lighten the tone or demonstate the Trickster’s sense of humor. Choice (D) is incorrect because the author does not provide a picture or even a vivid description of Coyote or Prometheus. Choice (E) is incorrect because it is not what the discussion of Coyote and Prometheus primarily serves to do in the passage.

13. The correct answer is (D). This is indicated by the grandmother’s criticism of the mother’s cooking in lines 77–80 and by lines 108–111, in which she criticizes the narrator’s method of combing her hair, saying, You’re just like [your mother]. 14. The correct answer is (B). The overall thrust of the passage reveals that the narrator regarded her grandmother with some wonder. There is no indication that she felt endangered in her grandmother’s presence, choice (A), and her feelings for her grandmother are not shown to be completely negative, which rules out the other choices. 15. The correct answer is (D). This is explicitly stated in lines 94–97: The thing I remember most vividly about Grandma . . . is her shining hair . . . 16. The correct answer is (C). Immediately prior to the word it, the father has described how the mother was left to do all the work while the grandmother went out to preach. 17. The correct answer is (B). The other choices are illogical.

www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

12. The correct answer is (A). This is supported by lines 11–15, which express the grandmother’s lack of interest in her grandchild; lines 28–30, in which she refuses her son-in-law’s offer of a ride by saying, The bus is just as good; and lines 37–38, in which, once on the bus, the grandmother looks away, ahead toward her real life.

answers

9. The correct answer is (C). Planets and galaxies are visible. Choice (A) is contradicted by the passage, which states that dark matter is invisible. Choice (B) is illogical because gravity is not an object, but a force. Choices (D) and (E) are incorrect because neither collapsed stars nor black holes are mentioned in the passage.

..........................................................................................

8. The correct answer is (E). The entire second paragraph discusses the question of whether the universe will continue to expand or eventually collapse. The other choices are not discussed.

56

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

18. The correct answer is (A). Choice (A) addresses the three main points in the passage, having to do with culture, human rights law, and the exclusion of women from making decisions. Choice (B) is too narrow to be the main idea. Choice (C) is wrong because the passage does not discuss tradition overriding human rights law. Choice (D) might be deduced from the passage, but it is not really in the passage. Choice (E) is too narrow to be the main idea. 19. The correct answer is (C). The other choices are not in the passage. 20. The correct answer is (A). This is the dictionary meaning of the word embedded. 21. The correct answer is (D). Choices (A) and (C) may seem attractive at first, but sexual abuse and domestic abuse can happen to both men and women. Choice (B) is illogical. Choice (E) is possible, but it is not the best answer. 22. The correct answer is (E). Lines 92–93 contain the phrase even if they are kindly and well-meaning in other ways, implying that some males are well-meaning, thus ruling out choices (B) and (C). Choices (A) and (D) are not in the passage. 23. The correct answer is (C). From the tone of the essay, the writer clearly believes that a woman’s position in society should not be prescribed by others. 24. The correct answer is (E). To frame an argument in a certain way is to arrange it or adjust it for a purpose (in this case, to convince women that their oppression exists for a reason that is beneficial to society). The other choices do not really make sense. 25. The correct answer is (C). The example of the Convention supports the author’s argument that women are excluded from important decision-making about their own treatment. The addition of the reference to the Convention does not make the essay more appealing, choice (A), or enhance organization of ideas, choice (B). The author is criticizing the Convention, not appealing to its authority, thus refuting choice (D), and her observations about the Convention are pessimistic, not optimistic, refuting choice (E).

Section 2 1. 2. 3. 4.

A D B C

5. 6. 7. 8.

C E B B

9. D 10. A 11. C 12. B

13. 14. 15. 16.

A B B C

17. 18. 19. 20.

D E D B

1. The correct answer is (A). The 3, 5, and 7 in both the numerator and denominator 1 divide each other out, leaving a value of . 9

www.petersons.com

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

57

.................................................................

3. The correct answer is (B). Rounding to the nearest thousand means just dealing with the 2,471 part of the number. Since 471 is less than 500, round down to 2,000. This makes the rounded number equal to 732,000. 4. The correct answer is (C). The distance Sally walks is equal to the rate she walks multiplied by the time she walks, or D 5 RT. In this case, c 5 the rate she walks and 4 5 the time she walks, which makes the answer 4c.

.25hr

5

xhr

.75mi 9mi ~.75!x 5 ~.25!~9! x 5 ~.25!~9! 4 ~.75! x 5 3hr 6. The correct answer is (E). First, translate the words into an equation: A positive number (x) is added (1) to the square of that number (x2 ) becomes: x 1 x2. The “result is 42” becomes: 5 42. So, the translation into an algebraic equation is: x 1 x2 5 42 In this case, it is fastest to just plug in the numbers until you find the correct answer, 6 1 62 5 6 1 36 5 42. An alternate solution is to solve the quadratic equation for x. x2 1 x 2 42 5 0 ~x 2 6!~x 1 7! 5 0 ⇒ x 5 6 or x 5 27 Since x must be positive, x 5 6.

www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

5. The correct answer is (C). First, convert 15 minutes to hours to make the units of measurement match, 15 minutes 5 .25 hour. In this case, it is easier to work with 3 decimals, so convert also mile 5 .75 mile. Now set up the following proportion and 4 solve for x:

answers

S DS D S D

..........................................................................................

2. The correct answer is (D). The quick method of solution is to divide both sides of the 1 equation by 5. This leaves c 5 5. Another method is to solve for c first: 3 5 c 5 25 3 3 5 3 c5 ~25! 5 3 5 75 5 15 c5 5 1 c55 3

58

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

7. The correct answer is (B). Solve this one by setting |32x| 5 4. The choice that fulfills this condition is x 5 7. Thus, we have |327| 5 |24| 5 4. 8. The correct answer is (B). If you recognized the diagonal as the hypotenuse of a 3–4-5 triangle, you will know immediately that the length of the diagonal is 5. Otherwise, you can solve this problem by using the Pythagorean Theorem, which states: the sum of the squares of each leg of a right triangle is equal to the square of the hypotenuse, or a2 1 b2 5 c2, where a and b are the sides of a right triangle and c is the hypotenuse. Using this formula, we have: 32 1 42 5 c2 9 1 16 5 c2 or c2 5 25 c55 9. The correct answer is (D). We know that, when a line intersects two parallel lines, both angle a and the 40° angle must be equal. We know that a 1 b 5 180°, and since a 5 40°, we have: 40° 1 b 5 180° or b 5 180° 2 40° b 5 140° 10. The correct answer is (A). The expression can be factored to: ~5x 1 2!~x 1 2! ~x 1 2!~x 2 2! The expression (x 1 2) can be divided in both the numerator and the denominator, leaving the answer: 5x 1 2 x22 11. The correct answer is (C). We know one angle of the isosceles triangle and we know that two angles of the triangle must be equal to each other. Since all three angles added together must equal 180°, we have the following relations: 18° 1 2a 5 180° 2a 5 162° a 5 81° or 18° 1 c 1 b 5 180° 18° 1 18° 1 b 5 180° 36° 1 b 5 180° b 5 144° Thus, there are three possible answers (18°, 81°, or 144°). Only 81° is an answer choice.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

59

.................................................................

r 5 158 4 2p r ' 25 13. The correct answer is (A). =x cannot be a negative number, so the only possible choice is the one for which x ≥ 7. 14. The correct answer is (B). First translate the English into algebra: What is 7% of 60 becomes x 5

S D 7

100 x 5 4.2

~60!

15. The correct answer is (B). To find the solutions to the equation, set x 2 a 5 0 and x 2 b 5 0. Solving for x yields the solutions, x 5 a and x 5 b. 16. The correct answer is (C). The formula for the area of a circle is A 5 pr2. Since the 1 radius of a circle is the diameter, r 5 5. By plugging 5 into the formula, the answer is 2 obtained, A 5 p52 5 25p. 17. The correct answer is (D). Solving for y:

Squaring both sides: y2 5 ~4 2 x!2 5 ~4 2 x!~4 2 x! 5 16 2 8x 1 x2 18. The correct answer is (E). Solve this one by multiplying through by 5. This yields: 235 , 5x , 220. The only choice that satisfies this condition is 221.50. 19. The correct answer is (D). It is easy to compare the numbers without getting mixed up if you make all the choices the same number of decimal places. Since .1912 has four decimal places, put zeroes in the other choices to make them all read four decimal places. It’s faster to just do this mentally, but you are less likely to make a mistake if you can quickly write them in. Now it is easy to see that .1920 is the greatest number. 20. The correct answer is (B). The combination with the least sum will have the three least different numbers. To satisfy this condition, choose: C 5 {4} D 5 {5} E 5 {2} This makes the sum 5 11.

www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

y 5 42 x.

answers

158 5 2pr or

..........................................................................................

12. The correct answer is (B). The circumference of a circle is C 5 2pr. We are given C 5 158, so we have:

60

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Section 3 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

E E E C B B

7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

D C D D B B

13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

B C E D D

18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

B C C B A

23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

E E E B B

1. The correct answer is (E). The word or will alert you that you are dealing with two contrasting elements, so look among the choices for antonyms (opposites). Choice (A) makes no sense. Choices (B) and (D) are composed of synonyms. Choice (C) may seem closer, since at first glance they have an opposite feel; however, disguised and credible really are not antonyms. Only choice (E) is composed of true antonyms. 2. The correct answer is (E). The gist of the sentence tells you that you are dealing with cause and effect. Why would a person seek a chemical antidote (cure or remedy) for something? Probably because that something is negative or troubling. Now look among the choices for words that connote trouble. The only choice comprising two such words is (E). 3. The correct answer is (E). This is a definition question. Except for choice (E), none of the adjectives would necessarily apply to something flagrantly unfair. (Look up the word egregious in your dictionary and add it to your vocabulary.) 4. The correct answer is (C). This question involves cause and effect, but it is also a definition question. To exchange information is to communicate. 5. The correct answer is (B). The sentence implies that poor Armand was actually hit by the train. Since the word because is at the beginning of the sentence, you can ask yourself: Why would a person not notice a train coming? Being completely absorbed—or engrossed—is the best answer. 6. The correct answer is (B). The words although and in reality will alert you that you are dealing with two contrasting elements, so look for opposites, then fit them into the sentence to see if they make sense. Only choices (A) and (B) contain antonyms. Choice (A) is illogical, because people do not usually seek out authorities to refute their own claims. That leaves only choice (B). 7. The correct answer is (D). Again, the sentence alerts you that you are dealing with contrasting elements through the use of the words formerly and now. Only choices (B) and (D) contain opposites, so you can disregard the other choices. In choice (B), the words are in the wrong order—a person probably would not be hailed (or lauded) as a heretic, which leaves choice (D) as your answer. Do not be misled by choice (A) just because you may have outside knowledge that Galileo was once imprisoned. The questions will never ask for outside knowledge, and in this context the second word, surpassed, makes no sense.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

61

.................................................................

10. The correct answer is (D). The speaker’s style is elegant, and his words carefully chosen. Choices (A), (B), and (E) are incorrect because they would cause the style to be overtly emotional. Choice (C) is incorrect. 11. The correct answer is (B). Choices (A) and (C) are contradicted by the author’s suggestion that it is possible for graffiti artists to produce great art, which denotes approval and interest. Choice (D) is wrong because no words in the passage denote awe. Choice (E) is wrong because the author writes straightforwardly and knowledgeably on the subject. 12. The correct answer is (B). The passage speaks of the need to apply the art quickly (lines 11–12). 13. The correct choice is (B). A thing that is inert is motionless, the opposite of a thing endowed with motion. The other choices are less closely related to the idea of motionlessness.

15. The correct answer is (E). Motion is unnatural for a hat; being stuffed and immobile is unnatural for a squirrel. Choice (A) is wrong because the squirrel is not animate. Choice (B) is wrong because the hat is not immobilized. Choice (C) is wrong because the hat is not permanently changed. Choice (D) is wrong because the hat is not mobile in its natural state. 16. The correct answer is (D). In the same sentence, the author speaks of Nature as a good mother. 17. The correct answer is (D). The whole passage deals with the tenderness and care with which nature appropriately dresses each of her wildlings. The other choices are implied by the passage—except for choice (A) since the author does not mention God—but they are not its focus. 18. The correct answer is (B). The author states that these other provisions relate less to climate, ruling out choice (A), than to the more mechanical circumstances of life—and goes on to give examples of the “clothing” of the mole living in the dark and . . . dirt; the wave-washed seal; and the wild sheep . . . leaping among jagged storm-beaten cliffs. The other choices are not in the passage.

www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

14. The correct answer is (C). The passage introduces the railway car by saying how dismal it is to see a thing set in rigidness whose aspect is linked . . . with . . . mobility. The other choices are not in the passage.

answers

9. The correct answer is (D). The passage suggests that there is a relationship between injustice in one part of the world and the loss of national security in another. Choices (A) and (B) are incorrect, because they focus on nature and weather instead of human beings’ treatment of one another. Choices (C) and (E) are incorrect because they are too narrow to be the main idea of the passage.

..........................................................................................

8. The correct answer is (C). This is a definition question. In order to know that the word confound is the best answer, you will have to be aware that it means to confuse or bewilder.

62

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

19. The correct answer is (C). See the second sentence of the passage. The essay does not mention evolution, choice (A). The author does not pass judgment on nature, choice (D), but merely states the way things are as he sees them. Choices (B) and (E) are each too narrow to be the main idea of the passage. 20. The correct answer is (C). The danger of overpopulation in the animal kingdom is the topic of the first paragraph, in which the author states that if reproduction of species were to proceed unchecked, the world would not hold them. 21. The correct answer is (B). The essay deals almost entirely with the fact that disaster would result from unchecked population growth of any species. Note that you do not have to know who Thomas Malthus was to answer this question—all answers are stated or implied in the passage itself. 22. The correct answer is (A). In this paragraph, the author is talking about the necessity of obstacles to reproduction, because, if breeding is allowed to go unchecked in any species, that species will increase to the point where the earth cannot support it. The other choices would not make sense in the context of the passage. 23. The correct answer is (E). The word restraint here means abstinence. Not being married is (in Darwin’s view) the human societal custom that would place an obstacle in the way of breeding. 24. The correct answer is (E). The author of Passage 1 speaks about the love work of Nature (lines 22–23). The author of Passage 2 states at the very beginning that each individual in a species is engaged in a struggle for existence and will inevitably be destroyed (line 1). 25. The correct answer is (E). Since the author of Passage 2 so clearly believes that hard evidence points to the routine destruction of the individual in the natural world, he would most likely see Passage 1 as based on emotion (or sentiment), rather than on fact. The other choices indicate attitudes for which there is no evidence in Passage 2. 26. The correct answer is (B). It is logical to believe that an author who speaks of nature as a good mother would find the idea that unmitigated destruction is nature’s norm a harsh one. He might find it sophomoric, too, but harsh is a better answer based on the content of both passages. 27. The correct answer is (B). Since both authors cared enough to write serious essays on the subject, they evidently think it’s worthwhile. There is no evidence in the passage for the other choices.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

63

.................................................................

C A A B D

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. n2 5 2 12. 0.1225 13. 125 cubic inches 14. 15

B B D C A

15. $7.50 16. 400 17. Any number in the range .125 , x , .200.

18. 16 19. 1000 20. 20 feet

1. The correct answer is (C). Begin the solution by solving for x: 3x 24 5 8 3x 5 8 1 4 3x 5 12 x54 Careful, the questions asks us to find x 1 1, not x, so x 1 1 5 4 1 1 5 5. 2. The correct answer is (A). The intersection of sets A and B, denoted A∩B, is the set containing all elements that both sets have in common: 0, 1, and 4.

4. The correct answer is (B). You can figure this one out by solving for x and y. x1253 x5322 x51 y53

3y 1 9 5 18 3y 5 18 2 9 3y 5 9

Now x 1 y 5 1 1 3 5 4. 5. The correct answer is (D). The key to solving this problem is to realize that a line segment between two points on a circle that passes through the center of the circle must be a diameter. This means the radius of the circle is 6. Now it is a simple matter to calculate the area of the circle: A 5 pr2 5 p62 5 36p. 6. The correct answer is (B). Since you know that the sum of the angles must equal 180°, it is just a matter of setting up an equation and solving for a. 3a 1 24° 5 180° 3a 5 180° 2 24° 3a 5 156° a 5 52°

www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

3. The correct answer is (A). Each term of a geometric sequence is found by multiplying the preceding term by a constant, called the common ratio. The common ratio is found 1 2 5 . Thus, the third term in the by dividing the second term by the first term, 8 4 1 1 geometric sequence is 2 z 5 . 4 2

answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

..........................................................................................

Section 4

64

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

7. The correct answer is (B). Stated algebraically, the sum of .4 and its reciprocal is: z 5 .4 1

SD 1

.4 z 5 .4 1 2.5 z 5 2.9

8. The correct answer is (D). This one is easier than it looks. Simply substituting 21 for x gives us x∋y 5 (x3)(y) 5 (21)3(y) 5 2y, or x∋y 5 2y. Now substitute 2y for x∋y, and we are left with y 1 (2y) 5 y 2 y 5 0. 9. The correct answer is (C). You should have immediately recognized this triangle as a 30°-60°-90° right triangle. By the definition of 30°-60°-90° right triangles, the hypotenuse (x) is twice the length of the short leg (4). This means that x 5 8. 10. The correct answer is (A). To solve this problem, set up the algebraic relationships, then plug in known quantities. From the diagram, we can see that BC 1 CD 5 BD or BC 5 BD 2 CD. We can also see that CD 5 AD 2 AC. Substituting AD 2 AC for CD in the first relationship gives us: BC 5 BD 2 (AD 2 AC). Now plug in the given values to yield: BC 5 10 2 (18 2 12), or BC 5 4. 11. The correct answer is n2 5 2. Substituting 3n then n into f(x) 5 x2 1 6 yields f(3n) 5 (3n)2 1 6 5 9n2 1 6 and 3f(n) 5 3(n2 1 6) 5 3n2 1 18. Since we are given that f(3n) 5 3f(n), we know that 9n2 1 6 5 3n2 1 18. Simplifying this expression gives us 9n2 12 or n2 5 2. 2 3n2 5 18 2 6 or 6n2 5 12, which is equivalent to n25 6 12. The correct answer is 0.1225. In order to get the relationships right in this problem, separate the problem into two components x and y. Let x 5 5% of 7 and y 5 7% of 5. Now you have simplified the problem to: what is xy. Just solve for x and y, then multiply them together to get the answer: x 5 ~0.05!~7! 5 0.35 y 5 ~0.07!~5! 5 0.35 xy 5 ~0.35!~0.35! xy 5 0.1225 13. The correct answer is 125 cubic inches. In a cube, all sides are of equal length. This 15 5 5. Now, just plug 5 into the formula for the means that each side has length 3 volume of a cube (s3) to get the answer: V 5 s3 5 53 5 125

www.petersons.com

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

65

.................................................................

5 8.5 4 3 1 7 1 9 1 x 5 ~4!~8.5! 19 1 x 5 34 x 5 34 2 19 x 5 15

15. The correct answer is $7.50. To get this answer, translate the words into an equation, let x stand for the unknown original price, then solve for x. 65

SD 4

5 6 5 .80x 6 x5 .80 x 5 7.50

x

16. The correct answer is 400. Find this answer by putting the words into algebraic form, letting x be the unknown total number of people taking the test, and solving for x.

17. The correct answer may be any number in the range .125 , x , .200. 18. The correct answer is 16. Since 33 5 27, x 5 3. Substituting 3 into the expression yields the answer 2(3 1 1) 5 24 5 16. Remember that the question asks what the value of the expression 2(x 1 1) is, not what the value of x is. (The value of x is 3.) 19. The correct answer is 1000. Remember, a decimal is an integer divided by some unit 3 5 .003. of 10. In this case, the ratio is 3 to 1000, or 1000 20. The correct answer is 20 feet. First find the area of the square. We know its side has length s 5 4 feet. A 5 s2 5 42 5 16 feet Now use the area just calculated to find the length of the long side of the rectangle. We are given that the two figures have equal area, which means the area of the rectangle is also 16 feet. Now solve for the rectangle’s long side using the formula for area of a rectangle. A5L3W

www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

260 5 65% of x 260 5 ~.65!~x! 260 x5 .65 x 5 400

answers

~3 1 7 1 9 1 x!

..........................................................................................

14. The correct answer is 15. Solve this problem by setting up an equation, letting x be the unknown fourth number, then solving for x.

66

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Substituting 16 5 L 3 2 16 L5 2 L 5 8 feet You didn’t forget the question, did you? It asks you to find the perimeter of the rectangle, not its length. The perimeter of the rectangle is P 5 2~L! 1 2~W! 5 2~8! 1 2~2! 5 16 1 4 5 20 feet

Section 5 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

D A B E D C A C

9. E 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. E 14. B 15. D 16. A

17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

E D A C D C A D

25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.

B A B E C E A

32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39.

B D E E B B D D

1. The correct answer is (D). There is a shift in tense from present (is . . . intelligent) to past (was a member). 2. The correct answer is (A). The word order in the sentence is illogical. The phrase Dashing out of the chapel is a misplaced modifier describing the married couple, not the rain. 3. The correct answer is (B). The phrase according with is the wrong form of the idiom according to. 4. The correct answer is (E). There is no error in the sentence. It is written correctly in standard English. 5. The correct answer is (D). The error is one of vague pronoun reference. It is impossible to tell which man descended into madness. 6. The correct answer is (C). Noun number agreement is faulty in this sentence. The subjects of the sentence are both superheroes, not a superhero. 7. The correct answer is (A). This is a faulty use of an idiomatic phrase. The correct idiom would be accused of. 8. The correct answer is (C). The error is one of faulty comparison, and it’s easy to miss. Zelda’s tricks are more complex than Rex’s tricks (not than Rex himself).

www.petersons.com

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

67

.................................................................

11. The correct answer is (D). The error is one of shift in number from singular (the unicorn) to plural (their foreheads). 12. The correct answer is (A). The error here is a shift in person from second person (you) to third person (most people). 13. The correct answer is (E). There are no errors in the sentence—it is written in correct standard English. 14. The correct answer is (B). The preposition with is misused—the correct preposition is to. 15. The correct answer is (D). This is a shift in tense from present (can occur) to past (appeared). 16. The correct answer is (A). This is an error of faulty preposition. By their driving tests . . . should be changed to On their driving tests . . . 17. The correct answer is (E). The sentence is written in correct standard English. 18. The correct answer is (D). This is a shift in tense from past (cooled) to present (combine).

20. The correct answer is (C). It is clear, to the point, and says all it needs to say. The cliché at the beginning of the original sentence, At this point in time, is a sign that choice (A) is not the answer. Clichés often make a sentence wordy. Choice (B) also contains the cliché and is wordy. Choice (D) has dropped the cliché, so it is better but still wordy. Choice (E) is vague and implies that the word confines refers to only a small area of Higgins Beach. 21. The correct answer is (D). It is grammatically accurate and the least awkward of all the sentences. In the original sentence and in choices (B) and (C), the wild party, not the people, seems to be celebrating; also, both versions lack “punch,” since they make ineffective use of the passive voice (the actor, Bad Bob, is not active in the sentence). In choice (E), an important part of the sentence has been put in parentheses, making it seem a minor point. 22. The correct answer is (C). It is grammatically correct and the clearest version of the sentence. Choice (A) makes ineffective use of the passive voice, as does choice (B). In both cases, the people committing the action (the police) are not in the subject (or active) position, making the sentences sound insipid. Choices (D) and (E) are awkward and convoluted.

www.petersons.com

diagnostic test

19. The correct answer is (A). This is a faulty use of the preposition of. The beginning of the sentence should read In metabolism.

answers

10. The correct answer is (A). This is faulty subject-verb agreement—the subject is plural and the verb is singular.

..........................................................................................

9. The correct answer is (E). There are no errors. The sentence is written in correct standard English.

68

PART II: Diagnosing Strengths and Weaknesses

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

23. The correct answer is (A). The sentence is correct and rhythmical. Speak the others silently to yourself, and you’ll find they sound convoluted, even clunky. In choice (C), the word great seems like slang, which would be incongruous in this rather formal sentence; also, the sentence makes ineffective use of the passive voice. 24. The correct answer is (D). Choice (A) is inappropriately informal for the formal writing in the rest of the sentence. Choice (B) is unnecessarily wordy. Choices (A) and (E) represent a shift in diction. Choice (C) seems pompous because of the use of the verb oppugn. 25. The correct answer is (B). The sentence makes effective use of parallelism. The other choices, though technically correct, do not. Choice (A) uses the slang term loser, which is inappropriately informal in style. 26. The correct answer is (A). It is correctly punctuated. In choice (B), the semicolon is misused. Used correctly, the semicolon separates two independent clauses. The phrase even though is a subordinator, denoting that the second half of this sentence is a dependent clause. Choices (C), (D), and (E) are incorrect because they turn the dependent clause into a sentence fragment. 27. The correct answer is (B). The other choices are unidiomatic; also dangerouser, choice (C), is not a word—the correct intensifier is more dangerous. 28. The correct answer is (E). The punctuation is incorrect in the other choices: Commas should be used on either side of a parenthetical phrase such as or doppelganger. Choice (A) omits the first comma (causing the comma that is in the sentence to incorrectly separate subject and verb), choice (B) omits the second, and choice (D) omits both. Choice (C) makes a sentence fragment after the second part of the sentence. 29. The correct answer is (C). The coordinating conjunction but correctly joins two contrasting elements, democratic system and totalitarianism. The other conjunctions create nonsense. 30. The correct answer is (E). The other choices represent shifts in tense. 31. The correct answer is (A). It is dramatic, straightforward, and correctly punctuated. Choice (B) makes no sense—if a person’s life and career are ruined, surely that person would know it. In choice (C), the dramatic effect is ruined by wordiness. Choice (D) is unnecessarily convoluted. In choice (E), the comma is superfluous; also the meaning of the word why is ambiguous—here it could be an exclamation, as in “Why, you dog!” 32. The correct answer is (B). Except for choice (E), the choices are unnecessarily wordy. However, choice (E) represents a faulty conjunction. The word but should signal a contrast between two elements of a sentence, and there is no contrast between a thing being baffling and that same thing being unexplainable. 33. The correct answer is (D). The other choices have unnecessary commas. 34. The correct answer is (E). Choice (E) is correct because sentence 15 introduces the topic of the way Miles’s behavior changed over the years, which is described in sentence 12.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 2: Practice Test 1: Diagnostic

69

.................................................................

37. The correct answer is (B). It is clear and efficient. Examples of wordiness and redundancy in the other sentences are the phrase completely and finally in choice (A) and the phrase and distanced himself in choice (C). Choice (D) is convoluted and confusing. Choice (E) makes ineffective use of the passive voice. 38. The correct answer is (D). This is a logical conclusion to the discussion of the way Miles and his music changed over the years. The other sentences would be jarring, as they introduce new subjects. 39. The correct answer is (D). Choice (A) is unnecessarily complicated. Choices (B) and (C) sound strange because Miles’s birth and his growing up are in reverse chronological order. Choice (E) does not fit the style of the rest of the passage, consisting of choppy phrases instead of full sentences.

diagnostic test

www.petersons.com

answers

36. The correct answer is (B). The paragraph emphasizes the change that took place in Miles’s musical and personal style. Neither choice (A) nor choice (E) is in the paragraph. Choices (C) and (D) are each too narrow to be the main idea.

..........................................................................................

35. The correct answer is (E). It is not a particularly interesting thought, as it is too obvious; also it interrupts the flow of the sentences about Miles’s admiration of Charlie Parker.

P ART III

........................................................

PSAT/NMSQT REVIEW

...................................................................

CHAPTER 3

Critical Reading Review

CHAPTER 4

Words, Words, and More Words

CHAPTER 5

Math Review

CHAPTER 6

Writing Skills Review

Critical Reading Review

.............................................................................

•

Sentence completion

•

Reading skills

•

Summing it up

SENTENCE COMPLETION What to Expect Sentence completion questions are designed to measure: •

The strength of your vocabulary

•

Your ability to read closely and carefully

•

Your capacity to understand the logic of sentences

One of the most important things to do, well in advance of the test, is to acquaint yourself with the directions for each type of question. That way, you won’t have to waste precious moments figuring out what’s expected of you.

73

chapter 3

OVERVIEW

74

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

For sentence completion questions, you will be instructed as follows: Directions: Each sentence below has either one or two blanks in it and is followed by five choices, labeled (A) through (E). These choices represent words or phrases that have been left out. Choose the word or phrase that, if inserted into the sentence, would best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Canine massage is a veterinary technique for calming dogs that are extremely ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

inept disciplined controlled stressed restrained

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ C Þ Þ E Þ O O O O

How to Approach Sentence Completion Sentences READ WIDELY The best way to prepare for the sentence completion portion of the PSAT/NMSQT—indeed for the entire test—is to read widely. Read books, magazines, and newspapers. Read literary fiction and fiction written for pure entertainment. Read a variety of nonfiction—everything from computer manuals, to sports magazines, to books on the habits of birds. If you don’t feel like reading a whole work, read a few pages. When you run into a word you don’t know, look it up. Nothing will improve your vocabulary and your ability to reason with words as much as reading. PRACTICE The practice tests in this book are designed to help you improve your verbal ability and optimize your chances of getting a good score on the PSAT/NMSQT. Do ALL the practice tests—don’t skip any. The answer explanations that come at the end of the tests are particularly important. The explanations are every bit as important as the tests themselves. If you miss a question, the answer explanation will help you see the reason for your mistake, so you can avoid making the same mistake in the future.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

75

.................................................................

Read the initial sentence carefully. You’ll need to get a sense of its internal logic before looking at the choices. This will make picking out the answer easier. Look for key words and phrases, especially for ones that contrast with one another. Suppose you are confronted with the following sentence: The world of quantum mechanics is a strange one, in which the ______ laws of physics, known to us in the everyday world, no longer work. (A) unusual (B) explicit (C) familiar (D) eccentric (E) fallible The correct answer is (C). In this sentence, the word strange may catch your eye, followed by a contrasting phrase, known to us in the everyday world. Many times, as in this instance, another phrase in the sentence will be a synonym or near-synonym for what should go in the blank. A synonym for the word known is the word familiar, choice (C), which is the correct choice here. A quick survey of the other choices will show that none of them fit so well. Read all the choices. Once in awhile, the best answer will seem to spring off the page at you, especially in the case of sentences with only one blank. Be sure, though, no matter how certain you feel that you know the answer, to read all the choices. For one thing, many words look alike at a quick glance. Consider this sentence, for example: Although my mom doesn’t believe it, the CD player does not ______ me when I’m studying—I can concentrate just fine. (A) detract (B) remand (C) distress (D) motivate (E) distract The correct answer is (E). To distract is to divert attention. It would be very easy to choose choice (A) in haste—detract, which means to take away a desirable part of or to diminish. Remember also that the directions will ask you to pick the best answer, not simply a possible answer. Check the initial blank first by itself. When you’re faced with a sentence that has two blanks, check the initial blank; if it does not fit the logic of the sentence, discard the whole www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

TRY THESE STRATEGIES

76

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

choice. Don’t mull it over; just throw it out. If the first word does fit, then you have to go on to the second. Close reading is particularly important when you are faced with a two-blank sentence, because frequently the first word will fit just fine, but the second will be way off. For example: Bertha’s inheritance was all gone, and now she was ______ and utterly ______ and desperate. (A) impulsive. .repentant (B) elucidated. .bereft (C) destitute. .ebullient (D) inextricable. .vivacious (E) impoverished. .disconsolate The correct answer is (E). However, if you look only at the first word, you might well pick choice (C). But you would be wrong, because the second word, ebullient, means enthusiastic and lively, which Bertha, having lost all her money and being desperate besides, probably isn’t.

Pay special attention to small, qualifying words. Don’t read so quickly that you overlook the word not, a prefix such as un, or a qualifier such as many, almost, few, or only. These tiny elements can change the meaning of the entire sentence. For example: He was not an outlaw but a good husband and father. He was not only an outlaw but a good husband and father.

Small words that come at the beginning of the sentence or that link the parts together are crucial clues to the internal logic of the sentence. Some examples are: since, because, however, for example, similarly, and therefore. Know your prefixes. Be familiar with the meaning of certain important prefixes. A prefix (or suffix)—a small element added to the root, or base, of a word—can change the meaning of a word entirely. Some important prefixes (see Chapter 4 for more) are: •

dis-, meaning not (disagree, dissimilar, discomfort)

•

mis-, meaning bad, badly, wrong, wrongly, failure, or lack (misconduct, misspent, misfire)

•

re-, meaning again or anew (reelect, rekindle)

•

un-, meaning not (unhappy, unusual)

www.petersons.com

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

77

.................................................................

He had an ______ appearance, so you wouldn’t notice him in a crowd. (A) uncanny (B) unusual (C) unarresting (D) unappealing (E) unprecedented The correct answer is (C). All the other choices denote qualities that ARE noticeable in a crowd. Note also that the second half of this sentence defines the blank. Eliminate as many obviously wrong choices as you can, right away. If the answer is not immediately apparent, begin by eliminating obviously wrong choices. Once you understand the gist of the sentence, you can usually throw out one or more of the choices. Take the following example: The unicorn, being a/an ______ beast, exists only in legends and fairy tales. (A) bizarre (B) eccentric (C) ribald (D) mythical (E) terrifying The correct answer is (D). First, the phrase being a ______ beast, alerts you that you are looking for a synonym of one of the words at the end of the sentence to fill the blank. So you can eliminate choices (B), (C), and (E) as unlikely because you want a word that describes something that exists only in legends and fairy tales. Choice (A) is attractive, perhaps, but clearly choice (D), mythical (which means imaginary or fictitious), is the better of these last two choices. In some cases, if you’re very lucky, you may be able to eliminate all the choices except one!

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Look at the following example:

78

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Simplify long, complex sentences. If faced with a long and complex sentence, cutting it down, making it simpler, or even making two sentences or more out of it is a good idea. Be careful, though: don’t leave out anything important. Suppose you are given the following sentence: Behaviorism is that branch of psychology that attempts to explain human behavior using purely objective, ______ data, with the theoretical goal of predicting and ______ that behavior, an approach some people find sinister. (A) pristine. .utilizing (B) impartial. .improving (C) measurable. .controlling (D) biased. .perverting (E) limited. .responding to The correct answer is (C). This sentence probably seems pretty overwhelming at first, but there’s a way to make it less so. After reading it once or twice closely, chop it into two, three, or even four segments. (You won’t have to do this for all sentences—there won’t be time—but for monsters like this, it’s the best approach.) Behaviorism is a branch of psychology. It attempts to explain human behavior using purely objective, ______ data. Its goal is predicting and ______ behavior. [This is an approach] some people find sinister. Now you can discern the overall logic of the sentence more easily and begin working on the first blank. The first blank, in combination with the word objective, modifies the word data, so the word in that blank will almost certainly be a synonym or near-synonym of the word objective. Now eliminate the ones that are obviously wrong. One choice that can definitely be thrown out is the word biased, because it’s the opposite of the word objective. The words pristine and limited, while possible, aren’t particularly good bets either, so you can disregard them, at least for now. The most likely choices, then, are the words impartial and measurable, with impartial momentarily having the edge, as it’s most nearly synonymous with objective. When you move on to the second blank, however—looking now only at choices (B) and (C)—you find the words improving and controlling. Now you must ask yourself, which of these adjectives would more logically relate to the final part of the sentence—i.e., denote something sinister? Improving just doesn’t fit the bill at all. Therefore, your second choice, (C), the word controlling, is the right answer.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

79

.................................................................

The cause-and-effect sentence. Simply put, this is a sentence in which one element causes another. Because the scientific discovery of bacteria had not yet been made, people believed that disease had its source in the ______. (A) intrinsic (B) supernatural (C) egregious (D) tangible (E) outmoded The correct answer is (B). The word Because at the beginning of the sentence speaks for itself. The first half of the sentence mentions scientific discovery, so you know that the correct choice will have to run counter to the objectivity of science.

The comparison/contrast sentence. This is a sentence that shows ways in which two things are similar to or different from one another. Unlike the usual half-hour television show, which resolves all its conflicts in the second 15-minute segment, the good short story often presents its audience with conflicts that are ______. (A) determinate (B) inevitable (C) demonstrable (D) mysterious (E) irreconcilable The correct answer is (E). The word Unlike at the beginning of the sentence is a hint that you are dealing with contrasting elements in this sentence. Since the first half of the sentence speaks of conflicts that are quickly solved, you must look among the choices for a word that indicates the opposite.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Figure out the sentence type. The following are three main types of sentences that may be used on the PSAT/NMSQT.

80

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

The definition sentence. In this kind of sentence, one part defines another. Elke took a wrong turn, wandered into the boggy marshland, and sank into the ______. (A) current (B) quagmire (C) rivulet (D) estuary (E) copse The correct answer is (B). Remember, always pay close attention to the words and phrases immediately preceding (and following) the blank. The second syllable of quagmire should help with this answer, also, even if you aren’t sure what the definition of quagmire is. Choices (A), (C), and (D) indicate running water, not boggy land. A copse is a small thicket of trees.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

81

.................................................................

1. Because it was winter, and because he loved his cat “Tinkerbell,” Zelig fixed her a ______ basket in front of the fireplace. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

cozy soft pleasant charming neat

2. We all stared in ______ as, ______, Mr. Peters snapped his suspenders, rose straight into the air, and was gone. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

awe. .understandably admiration. .repugnantly indifference. .miraculously disbelief. .incredibly revulsion. .courageously

3. Although it runs counter to what most of us believe, sometimes a flawlessly logical argument can lead to a/an ______ conclusion. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

particular predestined inescapable impeccable erroneous

4. Arrested at the age of 70, the Greek philosopher Socrates was ______ to drink a deadly Hemlock potion, after being accused of the crime of ______ the youth of Athens. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

5. Larry Furr was easily the most ______ person I ever met—he fell for every scam in the book. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

entrepreneurial gullible savvy vehement innocuous

6. This communication channel is a public one; therefore, as an emergency medical technician, you should never transmit ______ information. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

communicable conventional confidential ceremonial communal

7. That math problem had me completely ______; I knew I’d never be able to find the solution. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

famished finalized fabricated flummoxed familiarized

8. Why did Gina betray me by ______ my secret desires? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

revitalizing divulging alleviating eluding indulging

required. .tutoring invited. .impugning condemned. .corrupting sentenced. .eulogizing accustomed. .commending

www.petersons.com

exercises

Directions: Each sentence below has either one or two blanks in it and is followed by five choices, labeled (A) through (E). These choices represent words or phrases that have been left out. Choose the word or phrase that, if inserted into the sentence, would best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

..........................................................................................

EXERCISES: SENTENCE COMPLETIONS

82

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

9. Although he never offended the non-Christians of his day by ______ the old pagan cults, at the end of his life the emperor Constantine ______ to Christianity and was baptized on his deathbed. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

denying. .reverted disavowing. .converted accepting. .deserted repelling. .matriculated worshipping. .adapted

10. My friend Abayomi’s name means “brings joy,” which is ironic, as he is always gloomy and ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

pessimistic optimistic unkempt repressed orderly

11. Each word has a variety of connotations; similarly, many words have more than one ______, or dictionary meaning. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

permutation transposition renovation evocation denotation

www.petersons.com

12. Science has found evidence that what we generally call “mind” resides in the organic structure of the brain; therefore, some scientists believe that when the body dies, the mind—and in some sense the soul—will likewise ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

disintegrate persevere concede conciliate reassemble

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

83

.................................................................

A D E

4. 5. 6.

C B C

7. 8.

D B

9. B 10. A

11. E 12. A

1. The correct answer is (A). The sentence is one of cause-and-effect. Note that the first half indicates that the season is winter. Although all of the choices denote fine qualities for a cat bed, only choice (A) connotes a snug, warm place. Remember, you should look for the best answer, not just an acceptable answer. 2. The correct answer is (D). This is a cause-and-effect sentence, although it is not explicitly marked as such by the word “because.” It forces you to ask the questions “How would I stare at someone who rose straight into the air?” and “How would I describe someone’s rise into the air?” The most attractive choices for the first blank would probably be choices (A), (B), and (D). Now look among these three choices for an appropriate second word. Taken in isolation, any one of them might work, but the combination in choice (D) is most plausible. 3. The correct answer is (E). This is a comparison/contrast sentence. The word Although indicates that you will be looking among the choices for a contrasting element. Ask yourself, “What kind of conclusion would I least expect a flawlessly logical argument to lead to?”

5. The correct answer is (B). This is a definition sentence. You must know what the word gullible means. If you do not, you should look it up now. 6. The correct answer is (C). This is a definition sentence. Ask yourself, “What kind of medical information should not be transmitted over a public channel?” 7. The correct answer is (D). This is a definition sentence, so you must know what all the words mean in order to rule them in or out. If you do not know what they mean, look them up now. 8. The correct answer is (B). This is another definition sentence. Look up the words you do not recognize among these choices.

www.petersons.com

exercises

4. The correct answer is (C). This is a cause-and-effect sentence. Examining the first word of each choice, you will immediately throw out the silly one, choice (E), since it is hard to see how one could become accustomed to drinking a deadly . . . potion. After that, you can most logically discard the “soft” first words of choices (A) and (B), since they don’t really seem to fit with being arrested and drinking poison. You are then left with choices (C) and (D). Common sense will tell you that it is improbable that there ever was an occasion when the general youth of Athens needed eulogizing.

answers

1. 2. 3.

..........................................................................................

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS

84

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

9. The correct answer is (B). This is a comparison/contrast sentence. Looking at the first blank, you will want to think what might offend non-Christians (in this case, pagans). Choices (C) and (E), reflecting positive attitudes toward the pagan cults, can be ruled out right away. Now turn to the second words. To revert to, choice (A), is to return to, and this doesn’t fit, because Constantine was only baptized on his deathbed. So, you are left with choices (B) and (D), and, when speaking of a person’s relationship to a religion, converted is clearly a better choice than matriculated, which is usually associated with admittance to college. 10. The correct answer is (A). You will want to rule out choices (B) and (E) right away, since an optimistic person and an orderly person can both bring joy. You can rule out choice (C) as well—we all know people who, although unkempt, are fun to be with. That leaves choices (A) and (D), and choice (A), being a near-synonym of gloomy, clearly has the edge. 11. The correct answer is (E). The denotation of a word is its dictionary definition. Each of the other choices means something entirely different. It would be a good idea to look these words up now. 12. The correct answer is (A). All the choices can be thrown out here, except for choices (A) and (C). Choice (A) is better because choice (C), concede, implies that there has been some sort of contest, which there hasn’t.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

85

.................................................................

What to Expect The Reading Skills section of the PSAT/NMSQT is crucial. Whether or not you do well in college depends very largely on your ability to read and understand what you’ve read. The Reading Skills section is designed to test your ability to do the following: •

Find the main idea of a reading passage.

•

Make inferences—that is, recognize ideas that are not stated in the passage, but only implied.

•

Figure out the meaning of words or phrases on the basis of their context.

•

Analyze and evaluate the passage in terms of logic, implications, ideas, opinions, and arguments, including recognizing inconsistencies in arguments.

•

Recognize rhetorical techniques that the author uses to advance the argument— consider the effects of diction (word choice), style (formal or informal; degree of detail used to support the argument), and tone (objective, passionate, sarcastic, etc.); consider the reasons behind what the author chose to include or leave out.

•

Compare and contrast the central arguments of two separate blocks of text.

•

Identify the organizational techniques used by the author—consider the order of the whole essay (chronological order, order of importance, order by comparison/ contrast, order by cause-and-effect, etc.).

•

Identify the author’s intent in writing the passage and attitude toward the subject.

Reading Skills passages on the PSAT/NMSQT fall into two categories, based solely on length: •

Passages of approximately 100 words, followed by 1 to 3 questions.

•

Passages that range from 500 to 850 words, followed by 6 to 12 questions.

You will prepare for both kinds of passages in the same way. For the Reading Skills questions, you will be instructed as follows: Directions: Read each of the passages carefully, then answer the questions that come after them. The answer to each question may be stated overtly or only implied. You will not have to use outside knowledge to answer the questions—all the material you will need will be in the passage itself. In some cases, you will be asked to read two related passages and answer questions about their relationship to one another.

How to Approach Reading Skills Questions READ! READ! READ! Okay, okay, so you’ve heard it before. But it still bears repeating. The more you read, the better you’ll do on the PSAT/NMSQT, as well as in college itself. Read material on a wide variety of subjects. Dip into popular magazines like People and GQ, and serious ones like the New Yorker, Scientific American, and National Geographic. Read your hometown newspaper— www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

READING SKILLS

86

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

the news, the gossip column, and the business section. Read the New York Times. Don’t be overwhelmed by what you read, though, or think that you have to remember it all. You’re reading for the practice that it will give you at analyzing and evaluating written ideas, not for facts to regurgitate on the test. You won’t be asked for facts. Everything you’ll need will be in the passages themselves. Maybe you watch a lot of TV. Most of us do, partly because it’s entertaining and partly because it’s easy. It’s passive—you sit back with your pizza or popcorn and, too often, turn off your mind and even your curiosity, allowing yourself to be carried along by the flickering images on the screen. There’s nothing wrong with that after a hard day.

But reading is—or should be—different, especially when you’re boning up for the Reading Skills section of the PSAT/NMSQT. You’ll be most successful on this part of the test if you work toward becoming an active reader. Don’t allow your eyes to just slide over the words, or you’re doomed. The important thing is to practice becoming involved in what you’re reading, in looking for key words, phrases, and ideas to help you discern the overall meaning. PRACTICE No need to be redundant, but practice is the best way to develop your skill at anything, from scuba diving to shooting hoops to cooking gourmet meals. So, do ALL the practice exercises in this book and read the answer explanations at the end of the practice tests.

NOTE The critical reading questions are not arranged in order of difficulty. The questions for each passage are arranged in the order in which the information is presented in the passage.

TRY THESE STRATEGIES

One task you’ll have to perform on the PSAT/NMSQT is to find the main idea of a reading passage. Main idea questions come in several guises. They may ask directly for the main idea, or they may ask for the central concern, or theme, or even the author’s intent or purpose in writing the passage. When asked for the main idea, look for a generalization. The main idea will be a generalization, rather than a specific fact that may only support the main idea. Beware of choosing answers that are too narrow and specific. Conversely, beware of answers that are so general that they leave out crucial information. Passages will vary widely from one another, so finding main ideas is particularly challenging. Consider the following two, very different kinds of passages. The first passage is based on a South Carolina Department of Health report. The second passage is an excerpt from a treatise on ghosts. Passage 1 Line

5

Cyclospora cayetanensis is a recently characterized coccidian parasite. The first known cases of infection in humans were diagnosed in 1977. Before 1996, only three outbreaks of Cyclospora infection had been reported in the United States. On June 14, 1996, the South Carolina Department of Health and Environmental Control (SCDHEC) was notified of digestive illness among persons who attended a luncheon near Charleston on May 23. All 64 attendees were interviewed. Of the 64 persons, 37 (58%) had Cyclospora infection, including 7 with laboratory-confirmed infection. The median incubation period was 7.5 days (range: 1–23 days).

www.petersons.com

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

87

.................................................................

15

Based on analysis by the SCDHEC, food items associated with illness included raspberries, strawberries, and potato salad. On May 23, a total of 95 persons attended a luncheon in an adjacent room and were served strawberries obtained from the same source, but they were not served raspberries; no cases were identified among these persons. One person who ate raspberries at the establishment that evening developed laboratory-confirmed infection; she had not attended either luncheon or eaten strawberries.

Passage 2 Line

5

10

15

20

People often report sensing the presence of ghosts. Strange noises and smells, coldness, objects being moved about, but no mover seen—all these indicate that a ghost is nearby. Ghosts can also be present as a tactile sensation, the whisper of a touch against the skin. Contrary to common belief, they are not usually corporeal—not at all like those sheets you wear at Halloween—and when they are, they’re usually illdefined, transparent (although they may be luminous). Very rarely, though, they’re as solid-seeming as a real person, can eat and drink and talk and even make love, fool people into thinking they’re alive, then vanish. But more often they are only sounds, or smells, a coldness in the air or a felt Presence. Ghosts can be either benevolent or malevolent. They can be comic and comfortable, like the old sea captain in The Ghost and Mrs. Muir, or horrific beyond belief like the ghosts of the revelers at the party in the Overlook Hotel, in Stephen King’s The Shining. They can emerge from the afterlife to teach us lessons, like old Marley in A Christmas Carol, or come back moaning to be avenged, like the ghost in Hamlet. They cannot cross over running water, although they can definitely pass through solid objects. They cast shadows and can be reflected in mirrors. Invariably they are clothed! You should not touch a ghost EVER. No one knows for certain what they are. Most people think they are spirits of the dead. But they may be projections of the human unconscious. Or astral bodies. Or thought-forms. Or even electrical charges in the atmosphere. The purpose of Passage 1 is to (A) give suggestions as to how to treat Cyclospora infection, based on findings by the SCDHEC investigation in 1996. (B) explain exactly what Cyclospora cayetanensis is and how it causes infection in humans, based on the 1996 SCDHEC investigation. (C) report the findings of the SCDHEC investigation into the digestive illness among attendees of a luncheon near Charleston on May 23, 1996. (D) justify funds spent by the SCDHEC on their investigation into the digestive illness among attendees of a luncheon near Charleston on May 23, 1996. (E) warn potential visitors to Charleston of the outbreak of Cyclospora cayetanensis that caused illness among the attendees of a luncheon near Charleston on May 23, 1996. The correct answer is (C). A more specific reason behind the report is not given.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

10

88

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Which of the following statements about ghosts from Passage 2 is the most objective? (A) People often report sensing the presence of ghosts (line 1). (B) Contrary to common belief, they are not usually corporeal . . . (line 4). (C) Ghosts can be either benevolent or malevolent (line 10). (D) You should not touch a ghost EVER (line 18). (E) No one knows for certain what they are (line 19). The correct answer is (A). This is the most verifiable statement in the passage. For the other statements, the author does not offer proof and does not appeal to any authority. Even choice (E) cannot be verified absolutely—many people think they know, including the author of the passage, and it’s possible someone may know.

Which of the following statements from Passage 1 is an opinion? (A) The first known cases of infection in humans were diagnosed in 1977 (lines 1–2). (B) Based on analysis by the SCDHEC, food items associated with illness included raspberries, strawberries, and potato salad (lines 9–10). (C) On May 23, a total of 95 persons attended a luncheon in an adjacent room and were served strawberries obtained from the same source . . . (lines 11–12). (D) One person who ate raspberries at the establishment that evening developed laboratory-confirmed infection; she had not attended either luncheon or eaten strawberries (lines 13–15). (E) There are no opinions in the passage, only facts. The correct answer is (E). The passage is composed entirely of verifiable statements.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

89

.................................................................

(A) Passage 1 has a more assertive tone. (B) Passage 1 has a more objective tone. (C) Passage 1 has a more ironic tone. (D) Passage 1 has a more whimsical tone. (E) Passage 1 has a more somber tone. The correct answer is (B). In Passage 2, the author seems to shout at times (note the capital letters and exclamation points), so Passage 1 seems more objective. The tone of Passage 2 is every bit as assertive, choice (A), as that of Passage 1—although offering no evidence, the author seems quite confident about the statements made. Neither passage seems ironic, whimsical, or somber.

Based on the passage, what was the most likely source of the Cyclospora infection described in Passage 1? (A) Strawberries (B) Potato salad (C) Raspberries (D) Other people (E) Laboratory contamination The correct answer is (C). See the final sentence of the passage.

Based on Passage 2, ghosts usually present to human beings as (A) objects being moved about. (B) non-corporeal beings. (C) entities solid-seeming as a real person. (D) benevolent entities. (E) malevolent entities. The correct answer is (B). See lines 4–6. Consider all questions in the context of the passage. Whether you’re looking for the main idea or the meaning of a particular word or phrase, pay attention to what’s in the passage, rather than what you know about the real world. You may not agree with what the passage says; it’s possible the author of the passage will be biased or even have the facts wrong. However, unless the question asks you to do otherwise (and it sometimes may), answer only on the basis of what the passage says. One cautionary note, however: At the same time

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Which of the following best describes the tone of Passage 1 as compared to that of Passage 2?

90

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

.................................................................

All of the information you need is right in the passage.

..........................................................................................

ALERT!

you are reading the actual words, you must be alert to signs of the author’s attitude toward the subject, which may be at variance with those words and which is usually revealed through diction, style, tone, and sometimes even punctuation. Consider the following two passages, which deal with the same topic. Passage 1 Line

5

Astral projection is synonymous with OBE—that is, out-of-body experience. The person who experiences this phenomenon leaves his or her physical body and enters what is called a subtle body, a kind of semi-transparent double that may be either clothed or naked. In the astral form, OBE travelers can roam about the earth or even visit non-earthly realms, passing through objects and moving at the speed of thought.

Passage 2 Line

5

“Astral projection” is said to be synonymous with “OBE,” or “out-of-body” experience. The so-called “traveler” leaves his or her body and enters what believers call a subtle body, which is a semi-transparent double that may be either clothed or dressed in its birthday suit. In this “astral form,” the person can move about the earth or even visit other worlds, passing through objects like Casper the Friendly Ghost, and moving at the speed of thought. According to Passage 1, a subtle body is (A) the guide that shows the astral traveler other realms, earthly and nonearthly. (B) the illusion of a semi-transparent double that makes astral travel possible. (C) an exit in the physical body through which the soul of the astral traveler can escape. (D) the form in which the astral traveler makes his or her way to other places, earthly or non-earthly. (E) the thought-projection that enables the astral traveler to move swiftly. The correct answer is (D). You might pick choice (B) because you believe astral projection is an illusion, but remember that the question begins According to Passage 1 . . .

www.petersons.com

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

91

.................................................................

(A) Passage 1, because that author seems more knowledgeable about the subject. (B) Passage 1, because the tone is straightforward, with no sarcasm. (C) Passage 2, because it has more detail and support from outside sources. (D) Passage 2, because that author uses humor to make his piece more interesting. (E) Both authors accept the idea as based on fact. The correct answer is (B). The lack of sarcasm indicates a serious, accepting attitude toward the subject. There is no supporting evidence in either passage for what the authors say, which rules out choices (A) and (C). Just because a piece is interesting doesn’t mean it is based on an accepting attitude, which rules out choice (D). The allusion to birthday suit and Casper the Friendly Ghost in Passage 2 lends a mocking attitude to Passage 2, ruling out choice (E).

What is the most likely reason the author of Passage 2 used quotation marks around words and phrases? (A) To make the passage seem more authoritative (B) To reinforce the impression of a sarcastic or tongue-in-cheek attitude toward the subject (C) To indicate that the words are from a secondary source (D) To make the technical information in the passage more clear (E) To differentiate technical words from the rest of the text The correct answer is (B). Punctuation is more than just window dressing. In this case, it implies a tongue-in-cheek attitude toward the subject matter. Quotation marks can be used for the reasons mentioned in choice (A) and in choices (C) through (E), also. But remember, the question concerns the way they’re used in this passage only—not all the ways in which they can be used in the real world. Remember that there is a difference between fact and opinion. A fact is what actually happened or actually is; an opinion is the author’s slant on it. You must become sensitive to the difference in order to do well on the Reading Skills portion of the PSAT/NMSQT. FACT: In her veterinary record, my cat is listed as a “domestic short-hair.” OPINION: My short-haired cat is more pleasant to take care of than a long-haired cat, because I don’t have to spend time brushing her.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Which passage is more likely written by an author who accepts astral projection as fact? How can you tell?

92

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

The first statement can be verified in the real world by a trip to the veterinarian’s office; the second cannot be verified and is therefore an opinion. Look for what is implied as well as what is stated directly. The second of the two statements above implies an attitude—that it is unpleasant to spend time brushing a cat. You may agree; another person may disagree. In the final analysis, there is no truth or untruth. Consider words only in their contexts. When asked the meaning of particular words or phrases in the passage, don’t consider them in isolation—look closely at the surrounding words and phrases. For instance, the word foot means something very different in the following sentences: •

I hurt my foot.

•

I can foot the bill.

Answer only the question that is asked. This may seem obvious, but in haste and under stress, it is easy to become sidetracked. When asked to relate parts of a passage to the whole passage or to other parts of it or when asked to compare two passages, be sure to choose answers that are pertinent to the question. For example, if asked to compare two authors in terms of their attitude toward romantic love, don’t choose a “correct answer” that deals with their attitudes toward God, even if their attitudes toward God are extensively discussed in the passage.

Remember that the answers to the questions are in the passage itself. Do not be daunted by the subject matter of any passage you’re asked to deal with. Remember: you need no outside knowledge except that which is gleaned from general experience and common sense. Read the questions first only if that works best for you. There are differing opinions about whether you should read the questions before you read the passage. As you do the practice exercises, try both approaches and see which works for you. Read the introductory lines and the footnotes. There will be two or three lines before the passage that tell you where it is from. These will orient you to what the passage is about, and they sometimes give a clue as to what the author’s purpose and attitude might be. Occasionally, a passage will have footnotes to help you with context or meaning—these are important, too.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

93

.................................................................

The Single Passage Here is an approximately 450-word passage that speculates on the nature of the universe. Line

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

It is likely that, throughout all of history, human beings have wondered, Where did the universe come from? Did it spring out of nothing, for no reason? Did something or someone create it? Is it perhaps infinite, thus needing no creator? An argument against the theory of an infinite universe—and the closest thing to scientific proof we have—is to be found in one of the basic laws of physics, the Second Law of Thermodynamics, which asserts that everything in the universe tends toward entropy—that is, toward disorder and decay. Eventually, says this Second Law, all systems (whether they be stars, or the Brussels sprouts you had last night for dinner, or the houses you’ve lived in during your lifetime, or indeed you yourself and everyone you know) will eventually lose organization and energy, disintegrate, and die. Things may seem to gain order—a baby grows into an adult, a house is built, a peach pit grows into a tree. However, the gain is illusory. For any entity to gain energy, it must steal energy from something else, and the overall stock of energy available in the universe is thereby diminished. (If a baby is to grow into an adult, it must eat, and the food it eats loses energy and disintegrates in the process; to build a house one must kill part of a forest.) Scientists can prove this Second Law; entropy can be measured. Now, if everything that exists eventually dissipates, disintegrates, and dies, then someday the universe itself will do likewise, reaching a state of thermodynamic equilibrium, a cold, dead state in which nothing changes. If the universe is infinite, then it has already had infinite time to accomplish this state of equilibrium, and obviously it hasn’t: In our universe, the baby grows up and goes off to college, the Brussels sprouts spring up from our gardens, the stars still shine. Entropy is inexorable; it’ll get us in the end. But it hasn’t gotten us yet—therefore, the universe cannot be infinite. The science of physics has postulated a beginning, a point called a “singularity,” from which the universe and all that is in it—including even space and time— emerged suddenly and violently. But what was here “before” the singularity? The answer is that there couldn’t have been any “before,” because time and space came into existence only at the singularity, so the word “before” has no meaning. Paradoxically, it is at this juncture that the notion of infinity insinuates itself again. For the singularity is the ultimate unknowable, that point which physicist Paul Davies calls “the interface between the natural and the supernatural,” the answer that still so far eludes us, which some call nothingness, some call infinity, and some call God.

www.petersons.com

exercises

Directions: The passage below is followed by questions based on the content of a single passage

..........................................................................................

EXERCISES: READING SKILLS

94

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

1. Which of the following choices best represents the main idea of the passage? (A) Because we do not know what existed “before” the singularity from which the universe sprang, the possibility exists that the Second Law of Thermodynamics was formulated in error. (B) The Second Law of Thermodynamics supports the idea of a finite universe, because, if the universe were infinite, it would have already succumbed to entropy, and obviously it has not. (C) Although the Second Law of Thermodynamics supports the idea of a finite universe—such as the one physicists postulate sprang from a singularity— there is still no answer to the question of what came “before” the singularity. (D) Physicists postulate that the universe sprang into existence at a singularity and point to the Second Law of Thermodynamics as proof. (E) Throughout human history, people have wondered whether the universe sprang from nothing, for no reason; whether something or someone created it; or whether it’s infinite. 2. In the context of the whole essay, the statement “. . . a peach pit grows into a tree” (lines 11–12) demonstrates that (A) life cannot come from nothingness. (B) it is possible that the universe has a creator. (C) sometimes universal entropy decreases. (D) at times, order seems to grow rather than diminish. (E) there was probably life even before the singularity.

www.petersons.com

3. Which of the following details about the origin of the universe NOT mentioned in the passage would best support the argument that the universe is finite? (A) Gravity is the weakest of nature’s forces, but it is cumulative in power. (B) Prior to 1930, scientists did not believe that matter could be created by natural means. (C) Physicists do not generally believe time moves—like space, it just simply is. (D) Using mathematics as a language, scientists can describe situations that are otherwise indescribable. (E) The galaxies are rushing away from each other, as from a primal explosion science has named “the big bang.” 4. What is the meaning of the word “inexorable,” as used in line 24? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Unexplainable Destructive Relentless Violent Regrettable

5. The author bolsters most of the arguments in the passage primarily by means of (A) citing authoritative sources. (B) appealing to our natural sense of wonder. (C) using analogies that compare one theory of creation with another. (D) using concrete details about various aspects of the subject. (E) appealing to our religious convictions. 6. The final paragraph mainly represents (A) definitions of terms used so far in the passage. (B) a digression from the main subject of the passage. (C) a summary of the main argument of the passage. (D) a reversal of the main argument so far. (E) an appeal to our religious convictions.

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

95

.................................................................

Passage 2 is taken from the journal of a fictional naturalist. Passage 1 Line

5

10

15

20

25

In this refulgent summer, it has been a luxury to draw the breath of life. The grass grows, the buds burst, the meadow is spotted with fire and gold in the tint of flowers. The air is full of birds, and sweet with the breath of the pine, the balm-of-Gilead, and the new hay. Night brings no gloom to the heart with its welcome shade. Through the transparent darkness the stars pour their almost spiritual rays. . . . The mystery of nature was never displayed more happily. The corn and the wine have been freely dealt to all creatures, and the never-broken silence with which the old bounty goes forward, has not yielded yet one word of explanation. One is constrained to respect the perfection of this world, in which our senses converse . . . its fruitful soils; . . . its navigable sea; . . . its mountains of metal and stone; . . . its forests of all woods; in its animals; . . . its chemical ingredients; . . . the powers and path of light, heat, attraction, and life. . . . What am I? and What is? asks the human spirit with a curiosity new-kindled, but never to be quenched. Behold these outrunning laws, which our imperfect apprehension can see tend this way and that, but not come full circle. Behold these infinite relations, so like, so unlike; many, yet one. I would study, I would know, I would admire forever. These works of thought have been the entertainments of the human spirit in all ages. . . . These facts have always suggested . . . the sublime creed, that the world is not the product of manifold power, but of one will, of one mind; and that one mind is everywhere active, in each ray of the star, in each wavelet of the pool; and whatever opposes that will, is everywhere balked and baffled, because things are made so, and not otherwise. Good is positive. Evil is merely privative, not absolute: it is like cold, which is the privation of heat. All evil is so much death or nonentity. Benevolence is absolute and real.

Passage 2 Line

5

10

We are born in and of the natural world and so to us it is mundane, but, as Eisley writes, it’s a queer place. Sometimes one would almost think that Nature, like the West African trickster god Edshu, were playing a joke on us. Consider the variety of creatures that inhabit the world: the butterflies, lacewing flies, and fireflies that hover amongst the flowers in our gardens like fairies; the dragonflies that hang incandescent as small lanterns above our rivers. Consider the birds of the land—the swallow, robin, and bluebird that grace our summer landscape; and the birds of the open ocean—the storm petrel, shearwater, fulmar, and fabled albatross. Yet consider, conversely, those other creatures that share our world: the carnivorous army ants of South America or the drivers of Africa, who swarm over their prey, www.petersons.com

exercises

Passage 1 is an excerpt from Ralph Waldo Emerson’s Divinity School Address delivered before the Senior Class in Divinity College, Cambridge, July 15, 1838.

..........................................................................................

Directions: The two passages below are followed by questions based on the content of paired passages. Answer the questions based on what is stated or implied in each of the passages; some questions may also ask you to find a relationship between the passages. (The passages in the actual test may be longer; however, this will give you some idea of the kinds of questions with which you might be faced.)

96

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

15

20

25

butcher and devour it, deflected from their grisly task only by fire. Consider the reptile, that monarch of the desert, whose venom courses through its prey and kills in a heartbeat. Even among the birds, some species are parasitic. The glossy cowbird, for example (with its blue-black plumage that gives off greenish light), lays five or six eggs a season, each in a different nest, and then abandons them. The old world cuckoo deposits her clutch in the nest of the host that reared her, her young ejecting the host’s offspring as soon as they are able. (The female is polyandrous and the male takes no care of the offspring at all.) Even the noble eagle emerges from its lofty aerie to descend upon the hapless rabbit, and the pure white seabird, the Fairy tern, is yet related to the gull, which is a scavenger and sometimes a cannibal. Among the birds, the very covering of bright feathers that enchants us has developed from the scaly armor of reptiles. And the glorious gift of flight is yet shared with the abhorred bat. Nature is adored by sentimentalists, and so she should be—in part. Yet looking upon her whole, we can but weep. 7. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of Passage 1? (A) Nature is guided by a forgiving God. (B) Nature is mysterious and can never be understood. (C) The natural world is a place of trials, and human beings are the better for that. (D) The natural world is a place in which only goodness really exists. (E) Nature has well-defined rules and laws. 8. What is the meaning of the word “refulgent” as used in Passage 1, line 1? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Revered Resplendent Remorse Redeemed Relaxed

9. With which of the following statements would both of the authors likely NOT agree? (A) Nature regards us as her plaything. (B) Nature can be understood only through objective observation. (C) Nature is a conscious and purposive entity. (D) Nature is more powerful than humankind. (E) Nature yields up great bounty.

www.petersons.com

10. The main point of Passage 2 can be summed up best in which of the following statements? (A) Nature is sometimes beautiful and sometimes ugly. (B) Nature is unsentimental. (C) Nature is a trickster, sometimes cruel but more often kind. (D) Nature is a trickster, sometimes kind but more often cruel. (E) Nature, like God, can never be understood. 11. What is the meaning of the word “mundane” in line 1 of Passage 2? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Boring Commonplace Beloved Sparkling Esoteric

12. The author of Passage 2 would most likely call the author of Passage 1 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

evil. delusional. sentimental. ignorant. hypocritical.

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

97

.................................................................

C D E

4. 5. 6.

C D D

7. 8.

D B

9. B 10. D

11. B 12. C

1. The correct answer is (C). It encompasses the main points in the passage—(1) that the Second Law of Thermodynamics supports the idea of a finite universe, (2) a brief explanation of the theory of the singularity, and (3) that the main question is still open. When confronted with a “main idea” question, the best first step is to eliminate the choices that simply are not in the passage or that distort its meaning seriously. Choice (A) fits these criteria—nowhere does the passage state or imply that the Second Law of Thermodynamics is erroneous. Likewise, choice (D) distorts the passage, because nowhere does the passage say that physics invokes the Second Law of Thermodynamics in support of a theory about the origin of the universe. Your next step is to eliminate the choices that are too broad and the ones that are too narrow. Choice (B) is too narrow: It leaves out the notion of the singularity and the question of what came before it, which are very prominent parts of the passage. Choice (E) is too broad, since it only restates the sweeping, general questions asked in the first paragraph and does not narrow down the content of the passage at all.

3. The correct answer is (E). The discussion of the singularity should lead you to this answer. Consider lines 28–30. The other choices do not relate directly to the passage. 4. The correct answer is (C). Read all of lines 23–24, and note especially the statement it’ll get us in the end. . . . Entropy can be described accurately using all the other choices, but only choice (C) defines it as used in lines 23–24. 5. The correct answer is (D). The passage is full of concrete detail, though short on authoritative sources (there is only one named source). 6. The correct answer is (D). The main argument so far in the passage has been in support of the idea that the universe is finite. The final paragraph introduces a counterargument. Note especially the word paradoxically (line 30). The other choices are not reflected in the last paragraph. Regarding choice (E), the final paragraph does mention God as a possible source of the universe, but it also mentions infinity and nothingness. 7. The correct answer is (D). It builds to the final conclusion: Good is positive. Evil is merely privative, not absolute. Neither forgiveness, choice (A), nor trials, choice (C), is mentioned in the passage. The mystery of nature, choice (B), is mentioned but is too narrow to be the main idea.

www.petersons.com

exercises

2. The correct answer is (D). Choices (A) and (E) are not in the passage. Choice (B) is in the passage, but not in the context of the peach tree. (Be sure not to choose an option just because it is somewhere in the passage. Read each question carefully.) Choice (C) is (tentatively) refuted in the passage.

answers

1. 2. 3.

..........................................................................................

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS

98

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

8. The correct answer is (B). The sentences immediately following describe the bright splendor of summer, indicated especially by the words fire and gold. 9. The correct answer is (B). Based on the passages, both authors believe they at least partly understand Nature, and neither is objective in his observations. Support for choices (C) and (D) can be inferred from both passages. Support for choice (A) can be found in Passage 2 and for choice (E) in Passage 1. 10. The correct answer is (D). The other choices can perhaps be inferred from the passage, but only choice (D) encompasses the author’s ambivalent, but on the whole rather dark, attitude toward Nature. 11. The correct answer is (B). Note that the line in question involves comparison/ contrast. 12. The correct answer is (C). See the next-to-last sentence. The other choices are not reflected in the passage.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 3: Critical Reading Review

99

.................................................................

•

Sentence completion questions are designed to measure: •

Strength of vocabulary

•

Ability to read closely and carefully

•

Capacity to understand the logic of sentences

•

Make sure you know the directions for each type of question.

•

Reading skills questions are designed to measure: •

•

Ability to read and understand what you’ve read

The best way to prepare for the Critical Reading section is to read widely.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

SUMMING IT UP

Words, Words, and More Words

.............................................................................

•

How words are built

•

The three basic word parts and how they work

•

List of common word parts

•

The best ways to learn new words

•

Using context clues

•

Summing it up

The PSAT/NMSQT isn’t a “spelling bee,” nor is it a vocabulary test. It does, however, test how much you know about vocabulary. In the critical reading sections, you will find questions that ask you about the meaning of words. In the sentence completions, you will have to choose the best word to fit the meaning of the sentence, which requires that you know the meaning of the word choices. We know that you can’t learn all the words that may appear on any given PSAT/NMSQT. What you can do is learn about the structure of words. Learning how words are made will help you figure out the meaning of unfamiliar words that you may encounter in the critical reading sections of the PSAT/NMSQT. This chapter has two parts. The first part discusses the basics of how words are built, what word parts mean, and how they work together. You’ll get a crash course in common word parts that will help you understand the meanings of words that you may encounter, perhaps for the first time, on the test. The second part of the chapter lists and defines some of the words most commonly used on the PSAT/NMSQT. You will learn the best strategies for learning these and other new words. However, as noted above, you can’t memorize all the words, so you’ll also learn how to use context clues to figure out word meanings. The chapter ends with exercises that provide opportunities for you to practice recognizing word meaning based on word parts and using your new vocabulary. 101

chapter 4

OVERVIEW

102

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

.................................................................

When you know some common word parts and how they work, you have a formula for deciphering unfamiliar words. Just divide the word into its parts, then use the information you learn in this chapter to determine what the parts mean and how they work. Then, you’re well on your way to recognizing the meaning of the word.

..........................................................................................

TIP

HOW WORDS ARE BUILT

Knowing what the parts of words mean is the key to deciphering words you’ve never seen before. Let’s take a look at the word biography and its parts. You know that a biography is something written about a person’s life. How do the word parts tell you this? Well, the second part of the word, graphy, comes from a Greek word that means “writing.” The first part of the word, bio, is also from Greek and it means “life.” Put them both together and you get . . . biography, the story of a person’s life. If you add the Latin word for “self”—auto—you get . . . autobiography, a story you write about your own life. Think about some other words that use one or more of these parts, like automobile, biochemistry, and autograph. Can you see how the meaning fits the word parts?

THE THREE BASIC WORD PARTS AND HOW THEY WORK Different kinds of word parts work together to make an understandable word. Think about it: If your car is going to do more than just sit there, it needs a collection of parts put together in the right way. Two steering wheels won’t do you any good if you don’t have a gas tank. There are three basic types of word parts. Each kind of word part has a specific purpose: Prefixes These parts attach to the beginning of a root word to alter its meaning or create a new word. Suffixes These parts attach to the end of a root word to change its meaning, help make it grammatically correct in context, or form a new word. Roots The basic element of a word that determines its meaning. Groups of words from the same root word are called word families.

A word can have a root, a prefix, and a suffix; it can have a root and two suffixes or a root and one prefix. The possibilities are endless (almost), but you must always have a root. Use the word list that follows to expand your word horizons. Once you begin to learn the word parts on the list, you’ll be able to take apart unfamiliar words like a master mechanic. As you make your way through the list, try to think of other words with the same parts. If you have time, check their meanings in a dictionary and take a look at the word origins in the entry.

LIST OF COMMON WORD PARTS Prefixes Prefix

Meaning

Example

a-

in, on, of, to

abed—in bed

a-, ab-, abs-

from, away

abrade—wear off absent—away, not present

a-, an-

lacking, not

asymptomatic—showing no symptoms anaerobic—able to live without air

www.petersons.com

Chapter 4: Words, Words, and More Words

103

................................................................. Meaning

Example

ac-, ad-, af-, ag-, al-, an-, ap-, ar-, as-, at-

to, toward

accost—approach and speak to adjunct—something added to aggregate—bring together

ambi-, amphi-

around, both

ambidextrous—using both hands equally amphibious—living both in water and on land

ana-

up, again, anew, throughout

analyze—loosen up, break up into parts anagram—word spelled by mixing up letters of another word

ante-

before

antediluvian—before the flood

anti-

against

antiwar—against war

arch-

first, chief

archetype—first model

auto-

self

automobile—self-moving vehicle

bene-, ben-

good, well

benefactor—one who does good deeds

bi-

two

bilateral—two-sided

circum-

around

circumnavigate—sail around

com-, co-, col-, con-, cor-

with, together

concentrate—bring closer together cooperate—work with collapse—fall together

contra-, contro-, counter-

against

contradict—speak against counterclockwise—against the clock

de-

away from, down, opposite of

detract—draw away from

demi-

half

demitasse—half cup

di-

twice, double

dichromatic—having two colors

dia-

across, through

diameter—measurement across

dis-, di-

not, away from

dislike—to not like digress—turn away from the subject

dys-

bad, poor

dyslexia—poor reading

equi-

equal

equivalent—of equal value

ex-, e-, ef-

from, out

expatriate—one who lives outside his or her native country emit—send out

extra-

outside, beyond

extraterrestrial—from beyond the earth

fore-

in front of, previous

forecast—tell ahead of time foreleg—front leg

geo-

earth

geography—science of the earth’s surface

homo-

same, like

homophonic—sounding the same

hyper-

too much, over

hyperactive—overly active

hypo-

too little, under

hypothermia—state of having too little body heat

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Prefix

104

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Prefix

Meaning

Example

in-, il-, ig-, im-, ir-

not

innocent—not guilty ignorant—not knowing illogical—not logical irresponsible—not responsible

in-, il-, im-, ir-

on, into, in

impose—place on invade—go into

inter-

between, among

interplanetary—between planets

intra-, intro-

within, inside

intrastate—within a state

mal-, male-

bad, wrong, poor

maladjusted—adjust poorly malevolent—ill-wishing

mis-

badly, wrongly

misunderstand—understand wrongly

mis-, miso-

hatred

misogyny—hatred of women

mono-

single, one

monorail—train that runs on a single rail

neo-

new

neolithic—of the New Stone Age

non-

not

nonentity—a nobody

ob-

over, against, toward

obstruct—stand against

omni-

all

omnipresent—present in all places

pan-

all

panorama—a complete view

peri-

around, near

periscope—device for seeing all around

poly-

many

polygonal—many-sided

post-

after

postmortem—after death

pre-

before, earlier than

prejudice—judgment in advance

pro-

in favor of, forward,

proceed—go forward

in front of

prowar—in favor of war

re-

back, again

rethink—think again reimburse—pay back

retro-

backward

retrospective—looking backward

se-

apart, away

seclude—keep away

semi-

half

semiconscious—half conscious

sub-, suc-, suf-, sug-, sus-

under, beneath

subscribe—write underneath suspend—hang down suffer—undergo

super-

above, greater

superfluous—overflowing, beyond what is needed

syn-, sym-, syl-, sys-

with,

synthesis—a putting together at the same time sympathy—a feeling with

tele-

far

television—machine for seeing far

trans-

across

transport—carry across a distance

un-

not

uninformed—not informed

vice-

acting for, next in rank to

viceroy—one acting for the king

www.petersons.com

Chapter 4: Words, Words, and More Words

105

.................................................................

Suffix

Meaning

Example

-able, -ble

able, capable

acceptable—able to be accepted

-acious, -cious

characterized by, having quality of

fallacious—having the quality of a fallacy

-age

sum, total

mileage—total number of miles

-al

of, like, suitable for

theatrical—suitable for theater

-ance, -ancy

act or state of

disturbance—act of disturbing

-ant, -ent

one who

defendant—one who defends him- or herself

-ary, -ar

having the nature of

military—relating to concerning soldiers polar—concerning the pole

-cy

act, state, or position of

presidency—position of president ascendancy—state of being raised up

-dom

state, rank, that which belongs to

wisdom—state of being wise

-ence

act, state, or quality of

dependence—state of depending

-er, -or

one who, that which

doer—one who does conductor—one who conducts

-escent

becoming

obsolescent—becoming obsolete

-fy

to make

pacify—make peaceful

-hood

state, condition

adulthood—state of being adult

-ic, -ac

of, like

demonic—of or like a demon

-il, -ile

having to do with, like, suitable for

civil—having to do with citizens tactile—having to do with touch

-ion

act or condition of

operation—act of operating

-ious

having, characterized by

anxious—characterized by anxiety

-ish

like, somewhat

foolish—like a fool

-ism

belief or practice of

racism—belief in racial superiority

-ist

one who does, makes, or is concerned with

scientist—one concerned with science

-ity, -ty, -y

character or state of being

amity—friendship jealousy—state of being jealous

-ive

of, relating to, tending to

destructive—tending to destroy

-logue, -loquy

speech or writing

monologue—speech by one person colloquy—conversation

-logy

speech, study of

geology—study of the Earth

-ment

act or state of

abandonment—act of abandoning

-mony

a resulting thing, condition, or state

patrimony—property inherited from one’s father

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Suffixes

106

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Suffix

Meaning

Example

-ness

act or quality

kindness—quality of being kind

-ory

having the quality of

compensatory—having the quality of a place or thing for compensation lavatory—place for washing

-ous, -ose

full of, having

glamorous—full of glamour

-ship

skill, state of being

horsemanship—skill in riding ownership—state of being an owner

-some

full of, like

frolicsome—playful

-tude

state or quality of

rectitude—state of being morally upright

-ward

in the direction of

homeward—in the direction of home

-y

full of, like, somewhat

wily—full of wiles

Root

Meaning

Examples

acr

bitter

acrid, acrimony

act, ag

do, act, drive

action, react, agitate

acu

sharp, keen

acute, acumen

agog

leader

pedagogue, demagogic

agr

field

agronomy, agriculture

ali

other

alias, alienate, inalienable

alt

high

altitude, contralto

alter, altr

other, change

alternative, altercation, altruism

am, amic

love, friend

amorous, amiable

anim

mind, life, spirit

animism, animate, animosity

annu, enni

year

annual, superannuated, biennial

anthrop

human

anthropoid, misanthropy

apt, ept

fit

apt, adapt, ineptitude

aqu

water

aquatic, aquamarine

arbit

judge

arbiter, arbitrary

arch

chief

anarchy, matriarch

arm

arm, weapon

army, armature, disarm

art

skill, a fitting together

artisan, artifact, articulate

aster, astr

star

asteroid, disaster, astral

aud, audit, aur

hear

auditorium, audition, auricle

aur

gold

aureate, Aureomycin

aut

self

autism, autograph

bell

war

antebellum, belligerent

Roots

www.petersons.com

Chapter 4: Words, Words, and More Words

107

................................................................. Meaning

Examples

ben, bene

well, good

benevolent, benefit

bibli

book

bibliography, bibliophile

bio

life

biosphere, amphibious

brev

short

brevity, abbreviation

cad, cas,cid

fall

cadence, casualty, occasion, accident

cand

white, shining

candid, candle, incandescent

cant, chant

sing, charm

cantor, recant, enchant

cap, capt, cept, cip

take, seize, hold

capable, captive, accept, incipient

capit

head

capital, decapitate, recapitulate

carn

flesh

carnal, incarnate

cede, ceed, cess

go, yield

secede, exceed, process, intercession

cent

hundred

percentage, centimeter

cern, cert

perceive, make certain, decide

concern, certificate, certain

chrom

color

monochrome, chromatic

chron

time

chronometer, anachronism

cide,cis

cut, kill

genocide, incision

cit

summon, impel

cite, excite, incitement

civ

citizen

uncivil, civilization

clam, claim

shout

clamorous, proclaim, claimant

clar

clear

clarity, clarion, declare

clin

slope, lean

inclination, recline

clud, clus, clos

close, shut

seclude, recluse, closet

cogn

know

recognize, incognito

col, cul

till

colony, cultivate, agriculture

corp

body

incorporate, corpse

cosm

order, world

cosmetic, cosmos, cosmopolitan

crac, crat

power, rule

democrat, theocracy

cre, cresc, cret

grow

increase, crescent, accretion

cred

trust, believe

credit, incredible

crux, cruc

cross

crux, crucial, crucifix

crypt

hidden

cryptic, cryptography

culp

blame

culprit, culpability

cur, curr, curs

run, course

occur, current, incursion

cura

care

curator, accurate

cycl

wheel, circle

bicycle, cyclone

dec

ten

decade, decimal

dem

people

demographic, demagogue

dent

tooth

dental, indentation

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Root

108

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Root

Meaning

Examples

derm

skin

dermatitis, pachyderm

di, dia

day

diary, quotidian

dic, dict

say, speak

indicative, edict, dictation

dign

worthy

dignified, dignitary

doc, doct

teach, prove

indoctrinate, docile, doctor

domin

rule

predominate, domineer, dominion

dorm

sleep

dormitory, dormant

du

two

duo, duplicity, dual

duc, duct

lead

educate, abduct, ductile

dur

hard, lasting

endure, obdurate, duration

dyn

force, power

dynamo, dynamite

ego

I

egomania, egotist

equ

equal

equation, equitable

erg, urg

work, power

energetic, metallurgy, demiurge

err

wander

error, aberrant

ev

time, age

coeval, longevity

fac, fact, fect, fic

do, make

facility, factual, perfect, artifice

fer

bear, carry

prefer, refer, conifer, fertility

ferv

boil

fervid, effervesce

fid

belief, faith

infidelity, confidant, perfidious

fin

end, limit

finite, confine

firm

strong

reaffirm, infirmity

flect, flex

bend

reflex, inflection

flor

flower

florescent, floral

flu, fluct, flux

flow

fluid, fluctuation, influx

form

shape

formative, reform, formation

fort

strong

effort, fortitude

frag, fract

break

fragility, infraction

fug

flee

refuge, fugitive

fus

pour, join

infuse, transfusion

gam

marry

exogamy, polygamous

ge,geo

earth

geology, geode, perigee

gen

birth, kind, race

engender, general, generation

gest

carry, bear

gestation, ingest, digest

gon

angle

hexagonal, trigonometry

grad, gress

step, go

regress, gradation

gram

writing

grammar, cryptogram

graph

writing

telegraph, graphics

grat

pleasing, agreeable

congratulate, gratuitous

www.petersons.com

Chapter 4: Words, Words, and More Words

109

................................................................. Meaning

Examples

grav

weight, heavy

gravamen, gravity

greg

flock, crowd

gregarious, segregate

habit, hibit

have, hold

habitation, inhibit, habitual

heli

sun

helium, heliocentric, aphelion

hem

blood

hemoglobin, hemorrhage

her, hes

stick, cling

adherent, cohesive

hydr

water

dehydration, hydrofoil

iatr

heal, cure

pediatrics, psychiatry

iso

same, equal

isotope, isometric

it

journey, go

itinerary, exit

ject

throw

reject, subjective, projection

jud

judge

judicial, adjudicate

jug, junct

join

conjugal, juncture, conjunction

jur

swear

perjure, jurisprudence

labor

work

laborious, belabor

leg

law

legal, illegitimate

leg, lig, lect

choose, gather, read

illegible, eligible, select, lecture

lev

light, rise

levity, alleviate

liber

free

liberal, libertine

liter

letter

literate, alliterative

lith

rock, stone

Eolithic, lithograph

loc

place

locale, locus, allocate

log

word, study

logic, biology, dialogue

loqu, locut

talk, speech

colloquial, loquacious, interlocutor

luc, lum

light

translucent, pellucid, illumine, luminous

lud, lus

play

allusion, ludicrous, interlude

magn

large, great

magnificent, magnitude

mal

bad, ill

malodorous, malinger

man, manu

hand

manifest, manicure, manuscript

mar

sea

maritime, submarine

mater, matr

mother

matriarchal, maternal

medi

middle

intermediary, medieval

mega

large, million

megaphone, megacycle

ment

mind

demented, mental

merg, mers

plunge, dip

emerge, submersion

meter, metr, mens

measure

chronometer, metronome, geometry, commensurate

micr

small

microfilm, micron

min

little

minimum, minute

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Root

110

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Root

Meaning

Examples

mit, miss

send

remit, admission, missive

mon, monit

warn

admonish, monument, monitor

mor

custom

mores, immoral

mor, mort

death

mortify, mortician

morph

shape

amorphous, anthropomorphic

mov, mob, mot

move

removal, automobile, motility

multi

many

multiply, multinational

mut

change

mutable, transmute

nasc, nat

born

native, natural, nascent, innate

nav

ship, sail

navy, navigable

necr

dead, die

necropolis, necrosis

neg

deny

renege, negative

neo

new

neologism, neoclassical

nomen, nomin

name

nomenclature, cognomen, nominate

nomy

law, rule

astronomy, antinomy

nov

new

novice, innovation

ocul

eye

binocular, oculist

omni

all

omniscient, omnibus

onym

name

pseudonym, eponymous

oper

work

operate, cooperation, inoperable

ora

speak, pray

oracle, oratory

orn

decorate

adorn, ornate

orth

straight, correct

orthodox, orthopedic

pan

all

panacea, pantheon

pater, patr

father

patriot, paternity

path, pat, pass

feel, suffer

telepathy, patient, compassion, passion

ped

child

pedagogue, pediatrics

ped, pod

foot

pedestrian, impede, tripod

pel, puls

drive, push

impel, propulsion

pend, pens

hang

pendulous, suspense

pet, peat

seek

petition, impetus, repeat

phil

love

philosopher, Anglophile

phob

fear

phobic, agoraphobia

phon

sound

phonograph, symphony

phor

bearing

semaphore, metaphor

phot

light

photograph, photoelectric

pon, pos

place, put

component, repose, postpone

port

carry

report, portable, deportation

pot

power

potency, potential

www.petersons.com

Chapter 4: Words, Words, and More Words

111

................................................................. Meaning

Examples

press

press

pressure, impression

prim

original

primal, primordial

proto, prot

first

proton, protagonist

psych

mind

psychic, metempsychosis

pyr

fire

pyrite, pyrophobia

quer, quir, quis, ques

ask, seek

query, inquiry, inquisitive, quest

reg, rig, rect

straight, rule

regulate, dirigible, corrective

rid, ris

laugh

deride, risible, ridiculous

rog

ask

rogation, interrogate

rupt

break

erupt, interruption, rupture

sanct

holy

sacrosanct, sanctify, sanction

sci, scio

know

nescient, conscious, omniscience

scop

watch, view

horoscope, telescopic

scrib, script

write

scribble, proscribe, description

sed, sid, sess

sit, seat

sedate, residence, session

seg, sect

cut

segment, section, intersect

sent, sens

feel, think

nonsense, sensitive, sentient, dissent

sequ, secut

follow

sequel, consequence, consecutive

sign

sign, mark

signature, designate, assign

sol

alone

solitary, solo, desolate

solv, solu, solut

loosen

dissolve, soluble, absolution

somn

sleep

insomnia, somnolent

son

sound

sonorous, unison

soph

wise, wisdom

philosophy, sophisticated

spec, spic, spect

look

specimen, conspicuous, spectacle

spir

breathe

spirit, conspire, respiration

stab, stat

stand

unstable, status, station, establish

stead

place

instead, steadfast

string, strict

bind

astringent, stricture, restrict

stru, struct

build

construe, structure, destructive

sum, sumpt

take

presume, consumer, assumption

tang, ting, tact, tig

touch

tangent, contingency, contact, tactile, contiguous

tax, tac

arrange, arrangement

taxonomy, tactic

techn

skill, art

technique, technician

tele

far

teletype, telekinesis

tempor

time

temporize, extemporaneous

ten, tain, tent

hold

tenant, tenacity, retention, contain www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Root

112

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Root

Meaning

Examples

tend, tens, tent

stretch

contend, extensive, intent

tenu

thin

tenuous, attenuate

term

end

terminal, terminate

terr, ter

land, earth

inter, terrain

test

witness

attest, testify

the

god

polytheism, theologizer

therm

heat

thermos, isotherm

tom

cut

atomic, appendectomy

tort, tors

twist

tortuous, torsion, contort

tract

pull, draw

traction, attract, protract

trib

assign, pay

attribute, tribute, retribution

trud, trus

thrust

obtrude, intrusive

turb

agitate

perturb, turbulent, disturb

umbr

shade

umbrella, penumbra, umbrage

uni

one

unify, disunity, union

urb

city

urbane, suburb

vac

empty

vacuous, evacuation

vad, vas

go

invade, evasive

val, vail

strength, worth

valid, avail, prevalent

ven, vent

come

advent, convene, prevention

ver

true

aver, veracity, verity

verb

word

verbose, adverb, verbatim

vert, vers

turn

revert, perversion

vest

dress

vestment

vid, vis

see

video, evidence, vision, revise

vinc, vict

conquer

evince, convict, victim

viv, vit

life

vivid, revive, vital

voc, vok

call

vociferous, provocative, revoke

vol

wish

involuntary, volition

voly, volut

roll, turn

involve, convoluted, revolution

vulg

common

divulge, vulgarity

zo

animal

zoologist, Paleozoic

www.petersons.com

Chapter 4: Words, Words, and More Words

113

.................................................................

Before you dive in headfirst, make sure you’re taking a realistic approach to upgrading your vocabulary. Let’s face it—this chapter contains a lot of vocabulary words. You won’t be able to learn all of these words, or all of the word parts, all at once. If you do want to try to learn the complete lists, give yourself plenty of time before the test date and break them down into manageable chunks. If you’ve decided to just concentrate on the words that seem most unfamiliar to you, it’s still a good idea to work in smaller chunks to avoid information overload. The following are a few techniques for designing a successful (and manageable) program for building your vocabulary.

Make Flash Cards Gather up a batch of index cards and search the word list for words you don’t know. Write one word on each index card. Then, write the definition on the back of the card. Study the words and their meanings—in small batches, of course—and then test yourself. Look at a word on one of your cards and write the definition on a separate sheet of paper. Then turn the card over and see if you’re correct. If you have a study partner, you can test each other.

..........................................................................................

THE BEST WAYS TO LEARN NEW WORDS

NOTE Although using “big words“ in your essay won’t impress the essay graders, increasing your

Building Familiarity with Words

vocabulary can

It’s a good idea to start reading newspapers, such as the New York Times and the Washington Post, and newsmagazines such as Time, U.S. News & World Report, and Business Week. They use the kind of challenging words that you’ll find on the PSAT/NMSQT and the SAT. These publications are available in most libraries. You might also do some random thesaurus searching. Think of a word and then find it in the thesaurus. See what some of the synonyms are and how their construction corresponds in word parts and meaning to the word you know. Start your own list of new words that you find through your reading.

USING CONTEXT CLUES Suppose you find a question for a reading passage that asks for a definition of a word that is unfamiliar to you. You can’t figure out what the root is. What do you do? Move on? Not yet. Vocabulary questions are some of the easier questions, and you want all the “easy” points you can get. What you do is turn to the sentence in which the word appears and use the word’s context—how it is used—to help you determine its meaning.

www.petersons.com

help you be more precise in your choice of words when you write. Precision and clarity are two qualities that will help boost your essay score.

114

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

.................................................................

When you come across a word that you can’t define, think back to what you learned earlier in this chapter about word parts. Can you spot the word’s roots? Does the word have a prefix or suffix that looks familiar to you? Remember, word parts are your clues to deciphering unfamiliar words.

..........................................................................................

TIP

We had not been able to get reservations for dinner until 8:30 p.m. The restaurant was packed, and the service was so slow that by the time the salad arrived we were ravenous. I don’t like salad that much, but after so long a wait, it was delicious. The word ravenous (line 3) means (A) very angry. (B) shouting. (C) dismayed. (D) very hungry. (E) annoyed. The correct answer is (D). To use context clues, you read at least the sentence before and after the one in which the word appears. You look for ideas and other words in those sentences that will tell you what the cited word means. In this case, the writer is telling you about a long wait for dinner, that he or she doesn’t particularly like salad, but in this case he or she evidently ate the salad because the writer calls it delicious. The writer and the others in the party may have been very angry, choice (A), but that has nothing to do with eating the salad. Nor does shouting, choice (B), being dismayed, choice (C), or being annoyed, choice (E). The correct answer is (D).

www.petersons.com

Chapter 4: Words, Words, and More Words

115

.................................................................

Exercise 1 1. mutable

A. able to be touched

2. culpable

B. laughable

3. interminable

C. empty of meaning or interest

4. amiable

D. of the first age

5. vacuous

E. holding firmly

6. vital

F.

7. primeval

G. unending

8. tenacious

H. stable, not able to be loosened or broken up

9. tangible

I.

changeable

10. inoperable

J.

friendly

11. risible

K. blameworthy

12. indissoluble

L. not working, out of order

necessary to life

Exercise 2 1. infinity

A. list of things to be done

2. duplicity

B. sum paid yearly

3. levity

C. a throwing out or from

4. brevity

D. shortness

5. ejection

E. endlessness

6. edict

F.

7. infraction

G. killing of a race

8. genocide

H. lightness of spirit

9. agenda

I.

a breaking

10. annuity

J.

double-dealing

11. microcosm

K. official decree; literally, a speaking out

12. doctrine

L. world in miniature

body of teachings

www.petersons.com

exercises

Directions: In each of the following exercises, the words in the left-hand column are built on roots given in the word-part list. Match each word with its definition from the right-hand column. Refer to the list if necessary. Can you identify the roots of each word? If you can’t figure out a word, look it up in a dictionary.

..........................................................................................

EXERCISES: WORD PARTS

116

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Exercise 3 1. recede

A. state as the truth

2. abdicate

B. throw light on

3. homogenize

C. oversee

4. illuminate

D. put into words

5. supervise

E. make freer

6. verbalize

F.

7. liberalize

G. bury

8. legislate

H. forswear, give up a power

9. intervene

I.

make laws

10. inter

J.

draw out

11. aver

K. make the same throughout

12. protract

L.

go away

come between

Exercise 4 1. abduction

A. arrival, a coming to

2. fortitude

B. a pressing together

3. consequence

C. a flowing together

4. confluence

D. something added to

5. compression

E. a coming back to life

6. locus

F.

7. status

G. truthfulness

8. disunity

H. that which follows as a result

9. veracity

I.

strength

10. revival

J.

lack of oneness

11. advent

K. a leading away, kidnapping

12. adjunct

L.

www.petersons.com

place

standing, position

Chapter 4: Words, Words, and More Words

117

.................................................................

A. being born

2. centennial

B. before the war

3. prospective

C. believing easily

4. circumspect

D. going against

5. multinational

E. in name only

6. clamorous

F.

7. antebellum

G. looking, forward

8. contrary

H. careful, looking in all directions

9. impassioned

I.

hundred-year anniversary

10. credulous

J.

have interests in many countries

11. obdurate

K. full of strong feeling

12. nominal

L. shouting

hard, unyielding

www.petersons.com

exercises

1. nascent

..........................................................................................

Exercise 5

118

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

ANSWER KEY Exercise 1 1. 2. 3.

I K G

4. 5. 6.

J C F

7. 8.

D E

9. A 10. L

11. B 12. H

1. 2. 3.

E J H

4. 5. 6.

D C K

7. 8.

I G

9. A 10. B

11. L 12. F

1. 2. 3.

F H K

4. 5. 6.

B C D

7. 8.

E I

9. L 10. G

11. A 12. J

1. 2. 3.

K I H

4. 5. 6.

C B F

7. 8.

L J

9. G 10. E

11. A 12. D

1. 2. 3.

A I G

4. 5. 6.

H J L

7. 8.

B D

9. K 10. C

11. F 12. E

Exercise 2

Exercise 3

Exercise 4

Exercise 5

www.petersons.com

Chapter 4: Words, Words, and More Words

119

.................................................................

•

Words have three basic parts: prefixes, suffixes, and roots.

•

Each word part has a specific purpose.

•

Word parts work together to form the meaning and function of the word in which they occur.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

SUMMING IT UP

Math Review

.............................................................................

•

Standard multiple choice

•

Student-produced response

•

Arithmetic

•

Algebra

•

Geometry

•

Summing it up

STANDARD MULTIPLE CHOICE What to Expect The format for multiple-choice problems is fairly intuitive—you’ve most likely seen questions like this on many standardized tests. The problem is presented to you with five options, labeled (A) through (E). The answer key has five columns of ovals, one for each possible solution. Your job is to fill in the oval that corresponds to the correct solution. For standard multiple-choice questions, you will be instructed as follows: 20 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES Directions: Solve problems 1–20, then select the best of the choices given for each one and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. You may use available space on the page for scratchwork.

Notes: 1. You may use a calculator. All of the numbers used are real numbers. 2. You may use the figures that accompany the problems to help you find the solution. Unless the instructions say that a figure is not drawn to scale, assume that it has been drawn accurately. Each figure lies in a plane unless the instructions say otherwise.

121

chapter 5

OVERVIEW

122

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

The answers line up by size. The quantities in math multiple-choice answer choices either go from larger to smaller or the other way around. Remember that when you’re trying to eliminate or test answers.

..........................................................................................

NOTE

Reference Information

................................................................. r

w

b

2

A 5 pr C 5 2pr

h

h w

r

h b

c a

2x

60

x s

2s

45

30

45

3x

s

1 bh V 5 ,wh V 5 pr2h c2 5 a2 1 b2 Special Right Triangles 2 The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180. A 5 ,w

A5

How to Approach Standard Multiple-Choice Questions Look at the answer choices before beginning each question so you’ll know what you’re looking for in the problem. If the problem looks impossible and you’re tempted to skip it, don’t—at least at first. There’s a lot of overlap in math—you may know enough arithmetic to help you figure out algebra problems or enough algebra to help you with geometry. If you don’t see your answer listed as one of the choices, it may be the same as one of the choices but written in a different mathematical form. Try changing the form of the answer. Try working the problem backward, testing the choices to find the right one. Simplify your task by using numbers in place of variables when you can do so quickly—they’re easier to work with. When checking your choices, use your calculator.

STUDENT-PRODUCED RESPONSE Student-Produced Response (SPR) Questions (Grid-ins) Another name for student-produced response questions is “grid-ins.” These questions test the same skills as the multiple-choice questions; the difference is that you’re not given possible solutions from which to choose. Instead, you have to come up with your own answer and enter it onto the answer sheet using a grid.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

123

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

For grid-in questions, you will be instructed as follows:

NOTE Don’t use a comma in a

10

number larger than 999. Just fill in the four digits and the corresponding ovals. You only have ovals for numbers, decimal points, and

-

fraction slashes; there aren’t any for commas.

www.petersons.com

124

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

How to Approach Student-Produced Response Questions The most important point to keep in mind when working with grid-ins is to fill in the ovals! The handwritten answer at the top of the grid is not scored by the machine. If the ovals are left blank, the machine will treat the answer as if it were left blank and all your hard work will have been for naught. Be sure to use the slash mark to indicate a fraction bar.

ALERT! Take the time to write your answer in the spaces. It will lesson your chances of filling in an incorrect oval.

It is not necessary to reduce fractions to their lowest terms if the answer will fit in the grid. Answers can be entered as either a fraction or a decimal where appropriate. Be sure to enter a mixed number as either an improper fraction or a decimal. Become familiar with the grid-in procedure by practicing with different types of answers. If a grid-in question has more than one correct answer, you will get credit for any correct answer.

ARITHMETIC Skill in arithmetic has been important ever since our Paleolithic ancestors first learned how to count cave bears. Today, skill in arithmetic will help you survive in a different, but no less important, way. It will help you to do well on the PSAT/NMSQT and the SAT, which will improve your chances of getting into the college of your choice. You will use arithmetic throughout your life, so study this section carefully to make sure you understand it and can apply its methods quickly. These are the important elements of arithmetic that you need to know: •

Numbers and the properties of integers

•

The number line

•

Fundamental operations used in arithmetic

•

Working with fractions

•

Decimals

•

Percentage

•

Ratio and proportion

•

Averages

•

Word problems

Numbers Numbers, like words, are symbols that represent something. Like language, numbers are a code that you can learn. Arithmetic is the branch of mathematics that deals with basic computations using real numbers. Here is what you need to know about numbers for the PSAT/NMSQT. www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

125

.................................................................

There are two categories of real numbers: rational and irrational. Rational Numbers These can all be written as fractions like 1 23 4 , 23, 6 , or . 9 2 8 Irrational Numbers This kind of number cannot be written as a fraction. Numbers such as pi, the square root of 2, or the cube root of 9 are irrational. WHOLE NUMBERS These are natural numbers such as 1, which are obtained by repeatedly adding 1 to it. For example: 3, 99, and 271 are whole numbers. PRIME NUMBERS A prime number is a whole number with exactly two whole number factors; namely itself and the number 1. (So the number 1 is not prime since it has exactly one factor.) Some examples of prime numbers are: 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, and 17. INTEGERS These are whole numbers and may be positive, negative, or zero. These are the kind of numbers you will work with most on the PSAT/NMSQT. Properties of Integers •

They do not include fractions or decimals.

•

An integer that is divisible by 2 is an even number, like 24, 22, 0, 2, and 4.

•

Zero is an even number.

•

All other integers are odd numbers, like 23, 21, 1, and 3.

•

Integers in sequence with a difference of 1 between them are consecutive integers.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

REAL NUMBERS

126

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

The Number Line

The number line is a horizontal line that graphically represents the real number system. To construct a number line, choose a point to represent zero, called the origin, then make marks at equal intervals to the left, or negative direction, and the right, or positive direction. These marks represent whole numbers, the integers. Plot all the other real numbers between these integers. The number line extends indefinitely in both the positive and negative directions.

−3

−2

−1

0

1

2

3

SIGNED NUMBERS All numbers except zero have an algebraic sign. The sign is positive if the number is to the right of the origin on the number line and negative if the number is to the left of the origin. A number without a sign in front of it is assumed to be positive. ABSOLUTE VALUE The absolute value of a number is just the number itself with the sign removed. Absolute value is designated by two vertical bars, one before and one after the number. For instance, the absolute value of a number y is represented by: ? y ?. Another way to think of absolute value is as the magnitude or distance away from the origin irrespective of the direction. For example, the absolute value of 27 is: ?27? 5 7

Basic Operations in Arithmetic There are four fundamental operations in arithmetic: addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division. There are also two important, and related, operations: exponentiation and finding roots of a number. The order in which these operations are performed is important, and you must work in the right order to get the correct answer. ADDITION

Combines two numbers together to get one total or sum. The operation of addition is indicated by the “1” sign. For example: 2 13

or

21355

5

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

127

.................................................................

Removes one number from another number. The result is the difference. The operation of subtraction is indicated by the “2” sign. For example: 3 21

or

32152

2 Subtracting one number from another is the same thing as adding its opposite sign, as in: x 2 y 5 x 1 (2y) MULTIPLICATION Adds a number to itself the specified number of times. The result is the product. The operation of multiplication is indicated by the “3” or “•” sign. For example: 7 33

or

7 • 3 5 21

21 Since multiplying 7 3 3 is the same as adding 7 1 7 1 7, you can think of multiplication as abbreviated addition. DIVISION Separates one number into another number of equal parts. The result is the quotient, which tells how many times one number can be multiplied by another. The operation of division is indicated by the “4” or “/” sign. For example: 6 2

53

or

64253

You can think of division as the reverse of multiplication. And remember, you cannot divide by zero. EXPONENTIATION This is a special case of multiplication. In exponentiation, a number is multiplied by itself the number of times specified by the power of the exponent. For example, squaring a number (x)2 is the same as multiplying the number by itself 2 times. Cubing a number (x)3 is accomplished in the same way. For example: 5 cubed 5 5 3 5 3 5 5 53 5 125 FINDING ROOTS This is the reverse process of exponentiation. The root of a number is a number that, when multiplied by itself the root number of times, will yield the number under the radical sign. For example: The cube root of 125 5

=3 125 5 5 www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

SUBTRACTION

128

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Order of Operations (PEMDAS) To solve an arithmetic problem on the PSAT/NMSQT, you may be asked to perform several different operations in sequence. To get the right answer, you need to perform the operations in the correct order, so memorize this acronym: PEMDAS

It stands for Please Excuse My Dear Aunt Sally.

PEMDAS is an easy way to remember to perform arithmetic operations in this order: those inside Parentheses first, then Exponents, followed by Multiplication and Division in order from left to right, then Addition and Subtraction in order from left to right. USING PARENTHESES One easy way to reduce careless mistakes and confusion in your thinking is to put parentheses around numbers that form groups of similar operations. For example: ~3 1 ~9 3 4!! 12

The parentheses in this example make it clear which operations to do in what order. First, the numbers in the inner set of parentheses, (9 3 4), followed by the 13 in the second set of parentheses, and finally, division by 12. The answer is: 3.25.

Fractions Think of fractions as a different way to indicate division. For example, the fraction

4 5

is

another way of saying 4 4 5.

ADDING AND SUBTRACTING FRACTIONS If the fractions have a common denominator, simply add the numerators together to get your 3 2 answer. For example, what does the sum of 1 equal? 7 7 312 7

5

5 7

If the denominators are not the same, you will need to find a common denominator before you can add or subtract. An easy way to do this is to multiply each fraction by 1, but in a different 5 271 1 , and so forth. Any form. Remember, 1 can be expressed not only as 1 or , but also as , or 1 5 271 whole number divided by itself will always equal 1. For example: 1 4

1

1 3

5?

First, find the common denominator by multiplying by 1: 1 4

3

3 3

and

www.petersons.com

1 3

3

4 4

Chapter 5: Math Review

129

.................................................................

3 12

1

4 12

Now, add the numerators together to get the answer:

7 12

MULTIPLYING FRACTIONS To perform this operation on fractions, multiply all the numerators together, then multiply all the denominators together. Put these products together in the same way, numerator over denominator, and you have the answer. For example, find the product of

8 5

3

3

1 3 . 6 2

Multiply all the numerators together: 8 3 3 3 1 5 24 Multiply all the denominators together: 5 3 6 3 2 5 60 The answer is

2 24 , which can be simplified to . 60 5

Simplifying Fractions Simplifying a fraction to its simplest form will make your calculations easier, especially 2 when you have a problem involving several steps. For instance, is much easier to work with 5 24 than . 60 DIVIDING FRACTIONS Divide one fraction into another by multiplying the reciprocal. To find the reciprocal fraction, put the numerator in the denominator and the denominator in the numerator. For example: 1 4 3

5

S DS D 1

8

4

3

5

8 12

5

2 3

8

Decimals Decimals are a special case of fractions. You can represent any fraction as a decimal by dividing the numerator by the denominator. Working with decimals is easy when you use a calculator; but remember, always keep the decimal point lined up when you need to write them out.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

This gives you:

130

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

EXAMPLE 3 4

.75 5 .75

or

4q3.00 2.80 .20 .20 .00

DECIMAL EQUIVALENTS These decimal equivalents of fractions are so common that they should be memorized: 1 4 1 3 1 2 2 3 3 4 1 1

5 .25 5 .333... 5 .50 5 .666... 5 .75 5 1.00

Percentages

Percentages, like decimals, are a special case of fractions. In a percentage, the denominator is always 100. The root, cent, actually means 100 (century, centennial). The numerator is the number of parts per 100. EXAMPLE 5% 5 50% 5

5 100 50 100

5 0.05 5 0.50

In order to make sure you understand percentages, you may want to review fractions and decimals.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

131

.................................................................

1. Remove the percent sign and write the number over 100. 2. Simplify. Example:

40% 5

40 100

5

4 10

5

2 5

HOW TO REPRESENT FRACTIONS AS PERCENTS 1. Divide the numerator by the denominator. 2. Move the decimal point two digits to the right, then add the percent sign. Example:

40 100

5 40 4 100 5 0.40 5 40%

HOW TO REPRESENT PERCENTS AS DECIMALS 1. Remove the percent sign. 2. Move the decimal point two digits to the left. Example:

40% 5 .40

HOW TO REPRESENT DECIMALS AS PERCENTS 1. Move the decimal point two digits to the right. (If there aren’t enough digits to do this, add more zeros on the right.) 2. Remove the decimal point. 3. Attach the percent sign. Example:

0.4 5 0.40 5 40. 5 40%

Ratio and Proportion These two concepts are closely related. RATIO A ratio is the quotient of one quantity divided by another, or one number compared to another. Let two quantities to be compared be called x and y. The ratio of x to y is: x y

or

x:y

EXAMPLE A city lot is 75 feet wide by 150 feet long. What is the ratio of its width to length? 75 or 75 : 150 The ratio is: 150 This simplifies to:

1 2

or

1:2

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

HOW TO REPRESENT PERCENTS AS FRACTIONS

132

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

PROPORTION A proportion is just two ratios set equal to each other. EXAMPLE 4 5

5

80 100

The right-hand term is equal to the left-hand term in a proportion.

Proportions can often be used to solve for an unknown part of a ratio. You can use it to solve for an unknown length of a triangle, using the method of similar triangles. For example, the ratio of two sides of one triangle is known to be 2 : 1. The first side of a second triangle is known to be 10. What is the length of the second side of the second triangle? Sounds difficult, but if you create a proportion, it all falls into place: 2 1

5

10 x

You can solve this by cross-multiplying: 2x 5 10

or x55

Averages Three numbers that are favorites of scientific investigators around the world are: •

Mean

•

Median

•

Mode

A favorite word of advertisers is average: “People who use Never Die vitamins live an average of 27 years longer.” Now the mean, median, and mode are technically all averages. However, what is usually meant by the word “average” is the arithmetic mean, or just the mean. MEAN This is the sum of a group of numbers divided by the number of numbers. It has the general form: a1b1c n

Where a, b, and c represent measured quantities and n is the number of measurements.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

133

.................................................................

In a zoo there are 4 cages, each holding several tigers, as follows: Cage A holds 5 tigers Cage B holds 3 tigers Cage C holds 6 tigers Cage D holds 5 tigers Cage E holds 6 tigers What is the average number of tigers per cage? Let x 5 the average number of tigers per cage Number of tigers is 25 (5 1 3 1 6 1 5 1 6) Number of cages is 5 x5

25 5

55

This means there is an average of 5 tigers per cage. MEDIAN The median is the middle number of a group of numbers when the data is arranged in order from least to greatest: 3, 5, 5, 6, 6

(The median is 5.)

If there are an even number of numbers, the median is the average of the two middle numbers: 3, 5, 5, 6

(The median is 5, because the average of 5 1 5 5 10, and 10 divided by 2 5 5.)

3, 5, 6, 6

(The median is 5.5, because the average of 5 1 6 5 11, and 11 divided by 2 5 5.5.)

MODE The mode is the number that appears most often in the group: 5, 3, 5, 6

(The mode is 5.)

If more than one number appears an equal number of times, the result is bimodal: 5, 3, 6, 5, 6

(The modes are 5 and 6.)

Word Problems A word problem can be looked at as a little story told with numbers or variables (that is, a letter that represents an unknown number). At the end of the story, you are asked a question.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

EXAMPLE

134

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

EXAMPLE Jochim spent $17 at the food court in the mall on Saturday, whereas Milton (who had four extra orders of fries) spent $23. How much more did Milton spend at the food court than Jochim? Word problems are found in all types of math, from arithmetic to algebra to geometry. To approach word problems, take the following five steps: Read in small segments, rather than trying to make sense of the whole problem at once. Underline each important segment—this will help you separate the math problem from the story. Jochim spent $17 at the Food Court in the Mall on Saturday, whereas Milton (who had four extra orders of fries) spent $23. How much more did Milton spend at the Food Court than Jochim? (A) $6 (B) $15 (C) $23 (D) $30 (E) $40 The correct answer is (A). $23 2 $17 5 $6. If the problem is a complex one, you might want to circle the question, just to help you keep in mind what you’re looking for. For multiple-choice questions, look over the answers before you begin working the problem. Work in fractions if the answer is in fractions, and in decimals if the answer choices are in decimals. DON’T fall for the most obvious answer choice—work the problem, even if you’re sure what the outcome will be. In the above example, you’re not likely to get confused, but if the problem were larger and more complex, you MIGHT, in haste, choose the sum of the numbers, choice (E), rather than the difference between them. Test-writers love to include answers that seem right but aren’t. Check your answer. Again, it could match one of the choices but still be wrong.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

135

.................................................................

1. 2% 5 (A) (B) (C) (D)

2.0 0.2 0.02 0.002

2. 2.0 5 (A) (B) (C) (D) 3.

1 4

0.20% 2.0% 20.0% 200%

5

(A) (B) (C) (D)

25% 0.25% 0.025% 0.0025%

4. 0.65 3 0.42 5 5. What is four and five hundredths written as a decimal? 1 1 6. 4 1 3 5 3 3 7.

5 12

2

3 8

5

1 8. 30 4 2 5 2 9.

3 7

3

10. 4 3

7 3 1 3

5

5

www.petersons.com

exercises

Directions: Solve problems 1–10.

..........................................................................................

EXERCISES: ARITHMETIC

136

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS 1. The correct answer is (C). Move the decimal two places to the left and take away the % sign—0.02. 2. The correct answer is (D). Move the decimal two places to the right and add the percent sign—200% 1 3. The correct answer is (A). 5 0.25 5 25%. It helps to have memorized the fractional 4 equivalents to decimals here. 4. 0.273 5. 4 1

5 100

6. 4 1 3 1 7.

5 12

2

3 8

5 4.05

S D

5

1

3

1

10 24

1

3

2

9 24

2 57 3 5

1 24

30 1 8. 30 4 2 5 5 12 2 2.5 9.

3 7

3

10. 4 3

7 3 1 3

5 @~3!~7!# 4 @~7!~3!# 5 5 ~4!~1! 4 3 5

www.petersons.com

4 3

21 21

51

Chapter 5: Math Review

137

.................................................................

Algebra is the second leg of the tripod of basic math knowledge you will need to do well on the PSAT/NMSQT. Remember, algebra is really just a generalization of the principles of arithmetic, except, in algebra, you must manipulate both numbers and letters, called variables, to get the answer. If you have reviewed the arithmetic section carefully, you are ready to begin working with algebraic concepts now. To be well prepared for the PSAT/NMSQT, you should have a solid grasp of these fundamental elements of algebra: •

Basic operations with signed numbers

•

Factoring

•

Simplifying algebraic expressions

•

Solving algebraic equations and inequalities

•

Substitution

•

Simple quadratic equations

•

Exponents and roots

•

Word problems

Do you know these important algebraic terms? Variable

A letter used to represent numbers or groups of numbers, x or y, for example.

Factor

Numbers or letters that form a product when multiplied together. For instance, 3 and 2 are factors of 6.

Coefficient

Often refers to the number in an algebraic expression, but can be any factor of the term. In the expression 7x2, 7 is the coefficient.

Equation

Is used to indicate that two expressions are equal. 9y 5 27, for example, is an equation that is true only when y 5 3.

Root

A number that makes an equation true. The number 1 is the root of the equation 17x 2 12x 5 5, because 5x 5 5, which means x 5 1.

Exponent

Tells how many times a number, or variable, is multiplied by itself (used as a factor). Exponents are indicated by a small superscript to the right of the number, or variable.

Polynomial

An expression that contains several algebraic terms. For example, a monomial has one term, a binomial has two terms, and a trinomial has three terms.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

ALGEBRA

138

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Basic Operations with Signed Numbers In algebra, we work with variables, which are letters that represent numbers, or groups of numbers. Signed numbers, you will recall, are numbers with a positive sign or a negative sign. If the number is positive, the (1) sign is usually omitted. When working with signed numbers, we can use the same basic operations in algebra that we use in arithmetic. ADDITION The distributive law is useful when adding and subtracting algebraic expressions. The distributive law says: For addition:

ab 1 ac 5 a(b 1 c)

When you see a term such as 3x 1 3y, you can use the distributive law to change the form of the expression to 3(x 1 y). For subtraction:

ab 2 ac 5 a(b 2 c)

Thus, a term like 4x 2 4z, becomes 4(x 2 z) using the distributive law. Adding polynomials If you want to add two polynomials, arrange the terms in vertical columns with like terms over one another. For instance, to add x2 1 9x 2 2 and 4x2 2 4x 1 5, proceed as follows: x2 1 9x 2 2 1 4x2 2 4x 1 5 5x2 1 5x 1 3

Subtracting polynomials If you want to subtract two polynomials, arrange the terms in vertical columns with like terms over one another. Now, change the sign of all terms in the lower polynomial and add. For example, to subtract 5x2 1 7x 2 3 from 8x2 2 15x 1 10, proceed as follows: 8x2 2 15x 1 10 1 25x2 2 7x 1 3 3x2 2 22x 1 13

MULTIPLICATION How you multiply algebraic expressions depends on whether they are monomials, binomials, or polynomials. Multiplication of Monomials If you want to multiply a monomial by a monomial, first multiply the coefficients together, then add the exponents of variables with the same base. For instance: (2x3)(7x4) 5 14x7

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

139

.................................................................

3x(5x 2 2x 1 1) 5 (3x)(5x) 2 (3x)(2x) 1 (3x)(1) 5 15x2 2 6x2 1 3x 5 9x2 1 3x Multiplication of Binomials Binomials have an important use in factoring. To multiply two binomials together, apply the distributive law as follows: (a 1 b)(c 1 d) 5 a(c 1 d) 1 b(c 1 d) 5 ac 1 ad 1 bc 1 bd For example, what is the result of multiplying (x 1 3) and (x 2 4)? ~x 1 3!~x 2 4!5 ~x!~x! 1 ~x!~24! 1 ~3!~x! 1 ~3!~24! 5 x2 1 ~24x 1 3x! 1 ~212! 5 x2 2 x 2 12 Multiplication of Polynomials To multiply one polynomial by another, multiply each term of one polynomial by each term of the other. As in the example above, you want to extend the method used for binomials to polynomials, using the distributive law: ~a 1 b 1 c!~d 1 e 1 f ! 5 a~d 1 e 1 f ! 1 b~d 1 e 1 f ! 1 c~d 1 e 1 f ! DIVISION How you divide algebraic expressions depends, again, on whether they are monomials, binomials, or polynomials. Division of Monomials In order to divide one monomial by another, divide the coefficients, then subtract the exponents of variables with the same base. For example: 6x3 4 3x2 5

SD 6

3

~x322! 5 2x

Division of Polynomials Division of one polynomial by another polynomial is done by dividing each term of the numerator by the denominator, as follows: a1b1c ~d 1 e 1 f !

5

a ~d 1 e 1 f !

1

b ~d 1 e 1 f !

1

c ~d 1 e 1 f !

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

To multiply a monomial by a polynomial, multiply each term in the polynomial by the monomial. Do you recognize the distributive law at work here? Here’s an example:

140

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Remember, you won’t be expected to make long, tedious calculations on the PSAT/NMSQT. When you encounter a problem that appears to require you to do this, look for an obvious shortcut. Is the calculation really necessary to get the answer? Can you divide common terms?

Factoring To factor an expression means to find other expressions that, when multiplied together, will yield the original expression. You are likely to see these kinds of factors on the PSAT/NMSQT. PRIME FACTORS The prime factors of an expression are itself and 1. COMMON FACTORS An expression has common factors if it has a monomial that can be divided into it to get a second factor. For example, 3 and 4 are factors of 12, or (x 1 3) and x are factors of x2 1 3x.

DIFFERENCE OF TWO SQUARES Factor polynomials that are the difference of two perfect squares by finding the square root of each term. One factor is the sum of each square root. The other factor is the difference of each square root. For example, the factors of x2 2 9 are: x2 2 9 5 (x 1 3)(x 2 3)

SIMPLE QUADRATICS These are trinomials in the form of ax2 1 bx 1 c, and their factors are two binomials. For instance, the factors of x2 1 x 2 6 are: (x 13)(x 2 2)

If a trinomial can be factored, it will meet this test: b2 2 4ac 5 perfect square

Simplyfing Algebraic Expressions Often, math questions on the PSAT/NMSQT will have expressions that look complicated and difficult to solve. But, if you look closely, you will usually find that these expressions can be simplified to something much easier. These are some important ways to simplify algebraic expressions: COMBINE TERMS

If an algebraic expression has several terms of the same degree, you can combine them into one term. For instance, if you see x2 1 3x 2 4x2, combine both of the second-degree terms. This simplifies the expression to 3x 2 3x2.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

141

.................................................................

An expression like

S

D

~28x2!~48y! ~48y!~14x!

may look difficult at first glance, but notice that 48y appears

in both the numerator and the denominator. These terms divide out because simplifies the expression to

48y 48y

5 1. This

28x2 , which can be further simplified to 2x. The expression wasn’t 14x

so difficult after all. REDUCE TO SIMPLEST FORM Often, algebraic expressions will be in a form that can be further simplified. You will want to reduce expressions to their simplest form in many cases, because it will simplify and speed up your work. As an example, take the expression:

S D S D 108x13 12x12

72x8

2

18x7

.

It can be simplified to:

S

D S

~9!~12!x13 12x12

2

D S D S D

~4!~18!x8 18x7

5

9x13 x12

2

4x8 x7

Which can be further simplified to: 9x 2 4x 5 5x CHANGE THE FORM OF THE EXPRESSION Sometimes you may want to change the form of an expression to work with it or recognize it 1 3x is the same as . as a correct answer. For instance, 32t 1 3y is the same as 3y 1 32t, and 6x 2 Be alert to the possibility that you may need to change the form of the expression if you don’t see your answer listed as a choice. FACTOR THE EXPRESSION Our old friend the factor is one of the most important ways to simplify some algebraic expressions. PSAT/NMSQT questions will often have factors in both the numerator and denominator that divide out and make the resulting simplified expression the correct answer. Consider this expression: x2 2 x 2 2 2

x 2 3x 1 2

5

~x 1 1!~x 2 2! ~x 2 1!~x 2 2!

5

~x 1 1! ~x 2 1!

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

DIVIDE TERMS

142

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Solving Algebraic Equations and Inequalities An algebraic equation is created by setting two expressions equal to each other. An equation has three parts: a left-hand side, an equal sign, and a right-hand side. Similarly, an inequality is created by setting one expression greater than the other. An inequality also has three parts: a left-hand side, an inequality sign, and a right-hand side. These are some important definitions and properties of equations: Root

An equation’s root is the number that makes the equation equal. The root of the equation 3x 5 24 is 8, because when x 5 8, 3x 5 (3)(8) 5 24. Some equations (i.e., quadratic equations) have more than one root. If so, these multiple roots are sometimes called the solution set.

Identity

An equation that is true for all values of the unknown is called an identity. This equation is an identity: x2 1 x 2 6 5 (x 2 2)(x 1 3).

Number of unknowns

Equations are categorized by the number of unknowns (variables) they have. D 5 RT is an equation with three unknowns, whereas 4x 1 5y 2 12 5 0 has only two unknowns.

Conditional equations

If an equation is true only for certain values of an unknown, it is called a conditional equation. For instance, x2 2 6 5 10 is true only when x2 5 16, or when x 5 14 , and x 5 24.

Degree

An equation’s degree is the same as its greatest degree term. For instance, y 5 mx 1 b is a first-degree equation (mx1), and y 5 ax2 1 bx 1 c is a second-degree equation (ax2).

Solving Equations The process of finding an equation’s root, or roots, is called solving. Solving equations usually involves manipulating one, or both, of its sides until it is in a form that can be solved. On the PSAT/NMSQT, most of the equations will be linear (first-degree) equations. Here are some useful ways to solve an equation: MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS This is one of the most useful ways to manipulate the equation into the form you want. There are two important points to keep in mind, however: First

You must perform the mathematical operation on both sides or the equality will not be served. For example, consider: 2x 5 10

In order to solve the equation (find its root), we divide both sides by 2: 2x 2

5

10 2

This gives us the solution: x 5 5 www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

143

.................................................................

You must perform the operation on each side as a whole, not term by term. For example: 1 y

5

1 5

1

1 3

To solve this one, take the reciprocal of the equation as a whole: 1

y5 1 5

1

5

1

1

8

3

15

5

15 8

If you were to incorrectly solve this by taking the reciprocal of each individual term, you would get y 5 8 for your answer. Wrong. But, if this were a question on the PSAT/NMSQT, 8 would probably be one of the answer choices. TRANSPOSING Another very useful method for solving equations is called transposing. Transposing is moving a term from one side of the equation to the other. This is done by subtracting it from both sides (to preserve the equality). This removes the term from its original location and places it on the opposite side with an opposite sign. For example: x 1 3 5 15 x 1 3 2 3 5 15 2 3 x 5 12 Do you know what these symbols mean? Less than:

,

The left-hand side is less than the right-hand side.

Less than or equal to:

≤

The left-hand side is less than or equal to the right-hand side.

Greater than:

.

The left-hand side is greater than the right-hand side.

Greater than or equal to:

≥

The left-hand side is greater than or equal to the right-hand side.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Second

144

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Solving Inequalities In general, you can solve inequalities using the same methods as those used to solve equations. However, there is an important point you need to remember when working with inequalities: DIRECTION OF THE INEQUALITY The direction of the inequality is reversed when you multiply or divide both sides by a negative number. For example: 3,7

but

~21!~3! . ~21!~7! 23 . 27

Similarly, if: x.0

then

2x , 0

x,0

then

2x . 0

or

Substitution When working with more than one equation, you may want to use a handy technique called substitution to solve the problem. Substitution, or plugging-in, is often useful when you have two equations with two unknowns. First, solve one equation for one of the two unknowns. Second, plug this solved equation into the first by replacing the unknown with the solved equation. EXAMPLE What is the value of x, given: 7x 2 5y 1 11 5 0 and 3y 213 5 23

First Solve for y in the second equation. 3y 5 23 1 13 5 36 y5

36 3

y 5 12

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

145

.................................................................

Substitute 12 for y in the first equation and solve for x. 7x 2 5y 1 11 5 0 7x 2 ~5!~12! 1 11 5 0 7x 2 60 1 11 5 0 7x 2 49 5 0 7x 5 49 x5

49 7

x57

Simple Quadratic Equations A quadratic equation is a second-degree polynomial equation whose general form is: ax2 1 bx 1 c 5 0 You won’t need to use the quadratic formula to solve problems on the PSAT/NMSQT. In a simple quadratic equation, you should get two answers. Most of the time, working with quadratic equations will involve factoring. For example: x2 2 4x 2 215 0 We want to find factors with the general form: ac 1 ad 1 bc 1 bd 5 (a 1 b)(c 1 d) In this case, we are looking for factors of 21 whose sum is 24. The factors of 21 are: 1, 3, 7, 21 Of these factors, the only possible combinations are 7 and 3. Now, plug them into the general form: (a 1 b)(c 1 d) And find the combination that works: (x 1 3)(x 2 7) The two answers are: x 5 23 and x 5 7

Exponents and Roots Complex calculations or manipulations of exponents or roots are not found in PSAT/NMSQT problems. Neither are exponents that are not whole numbers. These are the important things you should know about exponents and roots.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Second

146

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

EXPONENTS How you manipulate exponents depends upon whether you are multiplying, dividing, or raising one power by another power. Multiplying Expressions When you are multiplying algebraic expressions with the same base, add the exponents: (x2)(x5) 5 x2

1 5

5 x7

Dividing Expressions When you are dividing algebraic expressions with the same base, subtract the exponents: x6 2

x

5 x6 2 2 5 x4

Raising One Power by Another Power When an algebraic expression of one power is raised to another power, multiply the exponents: (x4)3 5 x4

3 3

5 x12

ROOTS

The root of a number is another number, a factor, that when multiplied by itself the root number of times, becomes the original number. For instance, a square root of 4 is 2 because when 2 is multiplied by itself the root number of times (twice for a square root), the product is 4, the original number. Stated algebraically, this is: =4 5 2 because 22 5 2 3 2 5 4. Another square root of 4 is 22 because (22)(22) 5 4 also. Do you know these important parts of a root? Radical A radical specifies a root of an expression or number,

=y x.

Index The index of a root is written as a small number over the radical sign. It specifies how many equal factors the radical represents. The most common indexes are 2, the square root, and 3, the cube root. By convention, a radical sign without an index is taken to mean a square root, = . Here are some examples:

=2 x The index 2 means take the square root of x, but the 2 is usually omitted.

=3 x

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

147

.................................................................

=4 x An index of 4 means take the fourth root of x. WORKING WITH RADICALS Just like exponents, how you handle radicals depends on whether you are adding, subtracting, multiplying, or dividing. Addition and Subtraction of Radicals Combine all like radicals. For example: 3=3 1 7=3 5 10=3 or 7=7 2 4=7 5 3=7 Unlike radicals must be rewritten, then combined. For example:

=45 1 =20 5 =~9!~5! 1 =~4!~5! 5 3=5 1 2=5 5 5=5 Multiplication of Radicals The product of the roots of two algebraic expressions equals the root of the product of the two expressions. For example: ~=18!~=2! 5 =~18!~2! 5 =36 5 6 and 26 or ~3=24!~5=6! 5 ~3!~5!=~24!~6! 5 15=144 5 ~15!~12! 5 180 Division of Radicals The quotient of the roots of two algebraic expressions equals the root of the quotient of the two expressions. For example:

=48 5 =3

Î

48 3

5 =16 5 4 and 24

or 100=200 4=50

5

Î

100

200

4

50

5 25=4 5 50 and 250

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

An index of 3 means take the cube root of x.

148

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Word Problems As is the case with arithmetic, word problems in algebra tell a little story, this time requiring you to translate the words into algebraic expressions. Word problems test not only your math skills, but also your ability to reason. When working with word problems, proceed systematically as follows: •

Read carefully to be sure you understand the problem.

•

Understand what you are being asked to solve for.

•

Figure out what information you are given.

•

Figure out what information you need.

•

Decide how to solve the problem.

•

Solve the problem.

•

Check your answer to make sure it answers the question.

If you become familiar with the key words and phrases used in word problems, they will be much easier to solve. It’s a good idea to memorize these words along with their algebraic translations because they are used often on the PSAT/NMSQT:

The Words

The Translation

Is, has, was

5

Jill is three years older.

Sum of, greater than, more than, further than

1

A town is 5 miles further than

Difference, less than, fewer, younger than

2

The cost is $1.75 less than

Of what number?

%

20 is

2 3

of a tank of gas

Per, for hour shoes sold for every hat

3 4 ratio

Example

1 5

of what number?

The car used

2 3

of a tank of gas.

Hiking at 3 miles per hour 3 pair of shoes for

SAMPLE WORD PROBLEM 48 is 80 percent of what number? •

Read the problem carefully.

•

You are being asked to find a number; let’s call it x. We want to solve for x.

•

We are given two pieces of information: 48 and what it represents, 80% of x.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

149

................................................................. We have enough information to solve the problem once we translate it into algebra. The translation is: 48 5 80% of x 48 5 .80x •

Solve the problem: x5

•

48 .80

or x 5 60

Check your answer: 60 makes sense, answers the question, and checks (.80)(60) 5 48.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

•

150

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

EXERCISES: ALGEBRA Directions: Solve problems 1–10.

1. 5n 1 25 5 65

6. Simplify:

~x2 2 4! ~x 1 2!

Solve for n. 2. The sum of a number and its double is 51. What is the number? 3. Which value of x will make this number sentence true? x 1 30 ≤ 14 (A) (B) (C) (D)

13 11 215 222

4. Which of the following are three consecutive even integers whose sum is 36? (A) (B) (C) (D)

7, 9, 11 8, 10, 12 9, 11, 13 10, 12, 14

5. What values of x will make the following inequality true? 3x 2 12 ≤ 3

www.petersons.com

7. Which of the following is equivalent to x2 1 4x? (A) (B) (C) (D)

x(x 1 4) 2(x 1 4) (x 1 4)2 (x 1 1)(x 1 4)

8. What is the equivalent of 4x(3xy 1 y)? 9. What is equivalent to (2y2 1 2)? 10. An equation of the form (A) (B) (C) (D)

inequality. constant. proportion. monomial.

a b

5

c d

is a(n)

Chapter 5: Math Review

151

.................................................................

n5

40

5 n58

2. n 1 2n 5 51 3n 5 51 n 5 17 3. The correct answer is (D). x 1 30 ≤ 14 x ≤ 14 2 30 x ≤ 216 4. The correct answer is (D). This is the only choice that is true. 5. 3x 2 12 ≤ 3 3x ≤ 3 1 12 3x ≤ 15

6. (x2 2 4) 5 (x 1 2)(x 2 2) So,

~x 1 2!~x 2 2! ~x 1 2!

5 ~x 2 2!

7. The correct answer is (A). An x can be factored out and the expression restated as x (x 1 4). 8. 12x2y 1 4xy 9. 2(y2 1 1) 10. The correct answer is (C). This is an example of a proportion, which is two ratios set equal to each other.

www.petersons.com

exercises

x≤5

answers

1. 5n 5 65 225 5 40

..........................................................................................

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS

152

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

GEOMETRY Study this geometry review carefully and it will improve your ability to recognize the properties of geometric figures and to use this knowledge to solve many of the PSAT/NMSQT math problems. Although much of this material will be review, take the time to be sure you understand it well. The time you invest now will pay off later. These are the basic concepts in geometry you will need to know: •

Points, lines, planes, and angles

•

Special angles, special lines, and their properties

•

Triangles, such as right, equilateral, and isosceles

•

Special triangles and their properties

•

Circles and their properties

•

Other polygons and their properties

•

Volume and surface area of solids

•

Basic coordinate geometry

Points, Lines, Planes, and Angles Points, lines, planes, and angles are the basic elements in geometry. Most geometric figures are constructed out of these building materials. Understanding these basic elements and how they fit together to form more complicated geometric figures is the key to correctly solving the geometry problems on the PSAT/NMSQT. POINT A point specifies location and nothing else. It has no size. A point is most often represented as a dot and labeled with an upper case letter. •B

On a graph, the location of a point is given by a set of coordinates; (3,8), for example. LINE A line is a set of consecutive points that extend infinitely in two directions. A line can be represented as a lowercase letter at one end of the line or by naming two points on the line.

t

A

www.petersons.com

B

Chapter 5: Math Review

153

.................................................................

A plane exists in two dimensions. It has infinite length and infinite width but no thickness. A plane is typically represented graphically as a four-sided figure and labeled with an uppercase letter in one corner.

G

ANGLE Two lines that meet at a point form an angle. Each line is called a side of the angle, and the point at which they meet is called the vertex of the angle. The ∠ symbol is used to designate an angle.

P

Q

D

The angle shown above can be labeled in several ways: •

By a number, as in ∠1

•

By a letter indicating the vertex, as in ∠D

•

By the use of three letters, such as ∠PDQ (The second letter has to list the vertex.)

Important Terms These important terms are often used when describing points, lines, planes, and angles: RAY A line extending from a point to infinity, in one direction only, is called a ray. LINE SEGMENT A line segment is that part of a line that lies between two endpoints. In the example below, AB designates this line segment:

A

M

B

COLLINEAR Points that are on the same line are called collinear. In the preceding diagram, points A, M, and B are collinear.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

PLANE

154

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

MIDPOINT The midpoint is the point that is equidistant from each endpoint and thus divides a line segment into two smaller line segments, each having the same length. In the preceding diagram, point M is the midpoint.

CONGRUENT Line segments that have the same length are congruent. Congruent line segments are marked alike. In the example under “Bisect” below, PQ and QR are congruent. BISECT If a line intersects another line in such a way as to divide it into two equal, or congruent, line segments, the line is said to bisect it. In the example below, AB bisects PR.

A

Q

P

R B

COPLANAR Points that are on the same plane are coplanar. In the example below, points C and D are coplanar because they are both on plane G.

G

D C

DEGREE An angle’s size is determined by measuring how far apart its two sides are. The unit of measurement for an angle is the degree (°). If an angle is small, it has only a few degrees. If an angle is large, it has many degrees. CONGRUENCE Angles that have the same degree measure are called congruent and are marked alike. The ≅ symbol indicates that two angles are congruent.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

155

.................................................................

There are several types of special angles you need to be familiar with: STRAIGHT ANGLE This angle is a straight line. Its angle measure is 180°.

RIGHT ANGLE This angle forms a square corner and is the result of the intersection of two perpendicular lines. The little square in the corner of the angle designates a right angle, which is 90°.

ACUTE ANGLE An acute angle is one with an angle measure of less than 90°.

OBTUSE ANGLE An obtuse angle is one with an angle measure of more than 90° and less than 180°.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Special Angles

156

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Special Angle Pairs Also, there are three types of special angle pairs you should know: VERTICAL ANGLES When two lines cross, they form two pairs of vertical angles. Vertical angles are congruent to each other. In the example below, ∠A and ∠C are one vertical angle pair and ∠B and ∠D are the second vertical angle pair. This means ∠A ≅ ∠C and ∠B ≅ ∠D.

B A

C D

COMPLEMENTARY ANGLES Two angles are complementary if the sum of their measures is 90°. In the example below, m∠BAC 1 m∠CAD 5 90°, which makes them complementary angles. The two angles need not be adjacent to each other to be complementary.

B

C A

D

SUPPLEMENTARY ANGLES Two angles are supplementary if the sum of their measures is 180°. In the example below, m∠QPR 1 m∠RPS 5 180°, making them supplementary angles. The two angles need not be adjacent to each other to be supplementary.

R

Q

www.petersons.com

P

S

Chapter 5: Math Review

157

.................................................................

There are two very important types of special lines: perpendicular lines and parallel lines. Learn how to recognize them quickly and work with them easily. PERPENDICULAR LINES Two lines that cross at right angles are perpendicular. They form four right angles. Perpendicular lines are indicated with this symbol: ⊥. In the diagram below, CD ⊥ AB. Only one right angle symbol is needed to mark the lines as perpendicular.

C

A

B

D PARALLEL LINES Two lines in the same plane that never intersect are parallel. Parallel lines are indicated with this symbol: i. In the following diagram, two parallel lines, m and n are intersected by transversal, t. A transversal is a line that intersects two lines.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Special Lines

158

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Parallel Line-Angle Relationships The intersection of two parallel lines with a transversal creates a group of angles with relationships that are important for you to know. These relationships are as follows: ALTERNATE INTERIOR ANGLES Alternate interior angles are congruent. In the diagram below, the alternate interior angles are: ∠3 ≅ ∠5 and ∠4 ≅ ∠6.

CORRESPONDING ANGLES Corresponding angles are congruent. In the diagram, the corresponding angles are: ∠1 ≅ ∠5, ∠2 ≅ ∠6, ∠3 ≅ ∠7, ∠4 ≅ ∠8. INTERIOR ANGLES Interior angles that lie on the same side of a transversal are supplementary. In the diagram, the supplementary interior angles, which add up to 180°, are: ∠ 3 and ∠6, as well as ∠4 and ∠5.

Triangles A triangle is a three-sided polygon. When three points that don’t lie on the same line are connected by line segments, a triangle is formed. The D symbol is used to indicate a triangle. In the figure below, DABC lies in plane G.

G

www.petersons.com

B c A

a C

b

Chapter 5: Math Review

159

.................................................................

•

Name the line segment that forms it, such as AB.

•

Label it as a lowercase letter that matches the angle opposite the side; for example, side a would be opposite ∠A.

The usual way to designate an angle of a triangle is to: •

Name the three letters of the angle that form it, such as ∠BAC. (The vertex is always listed second. Here, the vertex is A: ∠BAC.)

•

Name the letter of the angle at the vertex, such as ∠A.

An essential property of triangles is: the sum of their angle measures equals 180°, or m∠1 1 m∠2 1 m∠3 5 180°. If you know or can figure out the measures of two of the angles, all you need to do to find the measure of the third angle is subtract their measures from 180°. Consider the following example: If m∠2 5 30° and m∠3 5 85°, what is the measure of ∠1? m∠1 5 180° 2 m∠2 2 m∠3 5 180° 2 30° 2 85° 5 180° 2 115° m∠1 5 65°

AREA OF A TRIANGLE To find the area (A) of a triangle, multiply

Area 5

1 2

~base 3 height!

or

1 2

the base (b) times the height (h) of the triangle.

1 A 5 bh 2

h b For example, what is the area of a triangle with base 10 and height 5? 1 A 5 bh 5 ~10!~5! 5 25 2

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

The usual way to designate the side of a triangle is to:

160

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

TYPES OF TRIANGLES The following are four main types of triangles. Scalene Triangle Has no congruent sides or angles.

Isosceles Triangle Has at least two congruent angles, called base angles, and a vertex angle. Has two congruent sides that are opposite the congruent angles.

Equilateral Triangle Has three congruent sides and three congruent angles, each 60°. This type of triangle is also isosceles.

Right Triangle Has one right angle measuring 90°. The side opposite this angle is the hypotenuse, which is the longest side of the triangle. A right triangle can also be scalene or isosceles.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

161

.................................................................

The right triangle is a special case. It has so many useful properties that it deserves a section of its own. Much of the branch of mathematics called trigonometry is based on the properties of the right triangle and the circle. For the PSAT/NMSQT, you won’t need to know trigonometry, but you will need to know about the Pythagorean Theorem and three important special types of right triangles. If you memorize the information in this section, you will be able to work faster and more accurately on the PSAT/NMSQT math questions. 3–4-5 Right Triangle True to its name, the lengths of the sides of a 3–4-5 right triangle are 3, 4, and 5, or some multiple (x) of these numbers. The 5 side will always be opposite the 90° angle. The diagram below shows the relationships of the sides.

B

5x

A

3x

C

4x

45°-45°-90° Right Triangle This type of right triangle is also called an isosceles right triangle. Both of the base angles are 45°, and the vertex angle is 90°. The following diagram of a 45°-45°-90° right triangle shows the relationships of the sides to the angles. If you know or can figure out one side of this triangle, it is easy to find the other two sides because each side is a multiple of x.

B x x A

x

C

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

SPECIAL TRIANGLES—THE RIGHT TRIANGLE

162

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

30°-60°-90° Right Triangle This is a very common triangle. As its name implies, the angles of this triangle are 30°, 60°, and 90°. The diagram below illustrates the relationships between the sides and the angles of this triangle.

B

2x

A

x

C

x

PYTHAGOREAN THEOREM

This theorem says: the square of the hypotenuse of a right triangle is equal to the sum of the squares of the legs. Stated algebraically, the Pythagorean Theorem is: c2 5 a2 1 b2. If you haven’t memorized the Pythagorean Theorem already, now would be a good time to do so because you will use it all the time.

B

c

A

a

C

b

Circles A circle is a closed plane curve whose every point is equidistant from a fixed point called the center. A circle is round. The following diagram shows a typical circle. Point C is the center of the circle, line segment BD is the diameter of the circle, and line segments BC and CD are each a radius of the circle. Circles are important geometric shapes. You will see many questions that relate to them on the PSAT/NMSQT, so be sure you understand them.

B C

www.petersons.com

D

Chapter 5: Math Review

163

.................................................................

These are the facts you need to know to work effectively with circles:

t

B r d

A

D

C

Radius The radius is the length of a line segment from any point on the circle to the center of the circle. The symbol for radius is r. Diameter The diameter is the length of a line segment that has both endpoints on the circle and passes through the center of the circle. The symbol for diameter is d. Tangent of a Circle A line that passes through only one point on the circle is called the tangent or tangent line. The tangent just nicks the circle. In the figure above, line t is a tangent. Pi The ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter is called pi. A letter of the Greek alphabet, p is used as the symbol for this ratio. The value of p to four decimal places is 3.1416. Circumference The circumference is the distance around the perimeter of the circle. The formula for circumference is: C 5 2pr Since the diameter is twice the radius, or d 5 2r, the formula can also be written as: C 5 pd

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

IMPORTANT FACTS ABOUT CIRCLES

164

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Arc An arc is some portion of a circle. An arc is created by connecting radii from the endpoints of the arc to the center of the circle. This forms an angle. t

B r d

A

D

C

In the figure above, ∠BCD forms arc BD. The degrees of arc BD are equal to the degrees of ∠BCD. Length of an arc 5

S D n

360

~2pr! where n 5 degrees of arc

Area To find the area (A) of a circle, multiply p times the square of the radius (r2): A 5 pr2

Sector A sector is that portion of the area of a circle that is bounded by the two radii and the included arc of the circle. It is like a slice of pie. Area of a Sector

There are three steps to finding the area of a sector. First, find what percent of the total area the sector represents. Do this by dividing the number of degrees of arc (n) by 360°. Second, find the area of the whole circle. Finally, multiply the two together to get the area of the sector. What is the area of a 90° sector of a circle with radius 4? First, sector % of total area 5

n 360°

5

90° 360°

5 25%

Second, area of circle 5 pr2 5 p(42) 5 16p Third, area of sector 5 (25%)(16p) 5 4p

Quadrilaterals and Other Polygons A quadrilateral is a plane figure formed by connecting line segments to four points, no three of which lie on the same line. A quadrilateral is a four-sided polygon. It and the triangle are the most common types of polygons. Every so often, though, a test question will ask you about other polygons, such as pentagons, hexagons, or octagons; so it’s a good idea to know how to work with other polygons, too.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

165

.................................................................

The quadrilaterals that you are most likely to find on the PSAT/NMSQT are the parallelogram, the rectangle, and the square. Parallelogram This quadrilateral has opposite sides that are parallel. The opposite sides are equal in length and the opposite angles are equal in measure, as shown in the diagram below, where QR 5 PS and QP 5 RS.

Q

b

a

a

R

b S

P Rectangle

A rectangle is a special type of parallelogram, in which all the angles are right angles (90°).

Square A square is a special type of rectangle. The sides of a square are all equal and the angles are all right angles (90°).

s

s

s

s

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

TYPES OF QUADRILATERALS AND THEIR MEASUREMENT

166

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

MEASUREMENT OF QUADRILATERALS You may be asked to find the perimeter or area of a quadrilateral or you may be asked to find the angle measure of some part of a quadrilateral. Here’s how to do it: Perimeter The perimeter (P) of a quadrilateral is just the sum of its four sides (s). P 5 s1 1 s2 1 s3 1 s4

Area The area (A) of a quadrilateral is its length (L) multiplied by its width (W). Area of a rectangle is:

A5L3W

Area of a square (where L 5 W) is:

A 5 s2

W

L

To find the area of a parallelogram, treat it as if it were a rectangle, but use the perpendicular distance, not the slant distance, as the width (W). You can do this because the slanted ends can be squared up by dropping a perpendicular line at each end. The part cut off from one side fits exactly into the empty space on the other end to form a rectangle with the same area as the parallelogram.

W

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

167

.................................................................

These types of polygons don’t occur on the PSAT/NMSQT as frequently as triangles and quadrilaterals, but it pays to know about them. Here is an easy way to find their total number of degrees of the interior angles.

Interior Angles of a Polygon Find the total number of degrees in a polygon’s interior angles by dividing the interior into as many non-overlapping triangles as you can. Count the number of triangles. Since each triangle has 180° of interior angles, the total number of degrees of interior angles of the polygon is 180° times the number of triangles. For example, in the pentagon above, there are three triangles, 180° 3 3 5 540°. This means there are 540° of interior angles in a pentagon.

Volume and Surface Area of Solids Solids are three-dimensional figures. For the purposes of the PSAT, they are usually quadrilaterals with the added dimension of depth, or thickness. A rectangular solid is a favorite example of a solid.

H

L W VOLUME In order to find the volume (V) of a solid, multiply the length (L) by the width (W), and the height or thickness (H). For instance, a rectangular solid of length 4 inches, width 3 inches, and thickness 2 inches has a volume of: V5L3W3H V 5 4 3 3 3 2 5 24 cubic inches In the case of a cube, all side dimensions are the same so the volume is: V 5 s3

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

OTHER POLYGONS

168

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

For example, a cube with side 3 inches has a volume of: V 5 33 5 27 cubic inches

SURFACE AREA You can find the surface area (S) of a solid by adding together the areas of each surface. To find the surface area of the rectangular solid in the example above, proceed as follows: The total surface area is made up of three pairs of surfaces: 2 ends, 2 sides, and 2 plates. Stated algebraically, this becomes S 5 2 ~H 3 W! 1 2~H 3 L! 1 2~W 3 L! 5 2~2 3 3! 1 2~2 3 4! 1 2~3 3 4! 5 2~6! 1 2~8! 1 2~12! 5 12 1 16 1 24 5 52 square inches

Coordinate Geometry Coordinate geometry applies principles of algebra to the solution of geometric problems. You establish a coordinate system by drawing two number lines perpendicular to each other. These lines are the axes. One line, the X-axis, runs horizontally. The second line, the Y-axis, runs vertically. This divides the plane into four quadrants. The point at which these lines meet is called the origin.

Y

(x,y)

h

ⴑX

y x

X

ⴑY

SPECIFYING A POINT You can specify a position on this coordinate system by using an ordered pair, composed of two numbers: the abcissa, and the ordinate, or (x,y). These two numbers locate a point on the plane. The first number, the abcissa, is the distance away from the origin on the X-axis. The second number, the ordinate, is the distance away from the origin on the Y-axis. From each of these points on the axes, extend a line parallel to the other axis. The point at which these lines meet is the point (x,y).

www.petersons.com

Chapter 5: Math Review

169

.................................................................

Find the distance between two points on the coordinate system by making use of the Pythagorean Theorem. Have you memorized this theorem yet? The Pythagorean Theorem is useful here because you can treat the distance between two points as the length of the hypotenuse of a right triangle. In the simple case above, seeking the distance from the origin (0,0) to the point (x,y) is the same as finding the length (h) of the hypotenuse of a right triangle with sides x and y. Solving for h, we have: h2 5 x2 1 y2 or h 5 =x2 1 y2 The general formula for finding the distance (d) between two points is: d 5 =~x1 2 x2!2 1 ~y1 2 y2!2 SLOPE OF A LINE The slope of a line (m) can be found by using the following formula: m5

y2 2 y1 x2 2 x1

MIDPOINT OF A LINE SEGMENT The midpoint (M) of a line segment can be found by using the following formula: M5

S

D

1 1 ~x1 2 x2!, ~y1 2 y2! 2 2

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

DISTANCE BETWEEN TWO POINTS

170

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

EXERCISES: GEOMETRY Directions: Solve problems 1–10.

1. How many faces does a cube have? 2. What is an acute angle? 3. What is a right angle? 4. Which of the following statements is true? (A) Parallel lines intersect at obtuse angles. (B) Parallel lines never intersect. (C) Intersecting lines always have two points in common. (D) Perpendicular lines never intersect. 5. In a triangle, the measure of angle A is 65 degrees and the measure of angle B is 25 degrees. What does angle C measure? (A) (B) (C) (D)

80 degrees 85 degrees 90 degrees 100 degrees

www.petersons.com

6. A polygon is a closed plane figure made up of connecting lines. What is the least number of lines that can make a polygon? (A) (B) (C) (D)

3 4 5 6

7. The top side of a rectangle is 4 times that of its adjoining side. If the adjoining side is x inches long, what is the area of the rectangle? 8. What is the complementary angle to 36 degrees? 9. What is the supplementary angle to 140 degrees? 10. What is the circumference of a circle with a diameter of 5 inches?

Chapter 5: Math Review

171

.................................................................

2. The definition of an acute angle is that it has a measure of less than 90° and greater than 0. 3. A right angle measures exactly 90°. 4. The correct answer is (B). All the other statements are false. 5. The correct answer is (C). The sum of the interior angles of a triangle is 180°, so the measure of angle C must be 90°. 6. The correct answer is (A). There must be at least 3 lines to form a closed plane figure, a triangle. 7. The area of a rectangle is length multiplied by width. In this case, the length is 4x and the width is x, making the area 5 (4x)(x) 5 4x2. 8. The complementary angle is one that, when added to 36°, makes 90°. This means the complementary angle is 90° 2 36° 5 54°. 9. The supplementary angle to 140° is one that, when added to 140°, makes 180°. This means the supplementary angle is 180° 2 140° 5 40°.

www.petersons.com

exercises

10. The formula for the circumference of a circle is C 5 2pr 5 pd. Since the diameter of the circle is 5, we have C 5 5p.

answers

1. A cube has 6 faces: four sides plus the top and bottom.

..........................................................................................

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS

172

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SUMMING IT UP

•

Make sure you are familiar with the directions for both the multiple-choice and student-produced response (grid-ins) questions before you take your test.

•

Always keep in mind what is being asked.

•

Keep the negatives and positives straight when you’re doing polynomial math.

•

Don’t be distracted by strange symbols.

www.petersons.com

Writing Skills Review

.............................................................................

•

Identifying sentence errors

•

Improving sentences

•

Improving paragraphs

•

Common grammar and usage problems

•

Summing it up

IDENTIFYING SENTENCE ERRORS What to Expect Identifying Sentence Error questions are designed to measure your ability to identify: •

Grammatical errors

•

Incorrect usage

•

Poor diction (word choice)

•

Faulty use of idiom (an expression peculiar to the English language that is considered correct, even though it is illogical if taken literally—for example, “many a day has passed” or “adverse to” as opposed to the incorrect “adverse against”)

173

chapter 6

OVERVIEW

174

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

For Identifying Sentence Error questions, you will be instructed as follows: Directions: The following questions will test your knowledge of grammar, usage, diction, and idiom. Some sentences are correct. No sentence contains multiple errors. In each sentence below, five elements, labeled (A) through (E), are underlined and lettered. One (and ONLY one) of the underlined elements may contain an error. In choosing your answer, be sure to follow the rules of standard written English. You can assume that the parts of the sentences not underlined are correct. If the sentence has no error, choose Þ E , “No error.” O Example: My dog Sally and my cat Buster gets along well with each other, eating and A B sleeping together, playing quietly, C and sharing their food and treats. No error. D E Sample Answer: B Þ C Þ D Þ E Þ Þ O O O O

How to Approach Identifying Sentence Errors Questions READ WIDELY Here we go again. There’s no way around this one: reading is the best way to develop an ear for correct, standard written English—and an ear for mistakes. In the Identifying Sentence Errors section, you will be asked only to spot errors; you will not be asked to say what those errors are. Many times, an error will be a segment of the sentence that just sounds wrong. If you’re used to reading and speaking correct English, you can usually trust your instincts to choose the correct answer. WRITE WHENEVER YOU GET THE CHANCE Write postcards and letters. Write for your own amusement—stories and anecdotes. Keep a diary. Do ALL your written homework between now and test time so you can get feedback. Although the writing section of the PSAT/NMSQT won’t ask you to write an essay, you’ll definitely do better on this section if you’ve honed your writing skills. Invest in a handbook that contains the rules of standard written English and, if you come to a place in your writing where you’re not sure of grammar or usage, look in the handbook for the answer. (It is a good idea to make sure the book contains a section on style as well.) PRACTICE Yes . . . again. Besides writing on your own, do ALL the exercises in this book. And don’t forget to read the answer explanations at the end of each test. www.petersons.com

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

175

.................................................................

Following are reminders and suggestions you can use in approaching the Identifying Sentence Errors portion of the PSAT/NMSQT: Read the entire sentence first. If you do not spot an error after inspecting the sentence carefully and if the sentence “sounds right,” check choice (E) and move on. Chances are, though, there will be an error. Take a look at the following example: There was some evidence that the twins had a psychic connection that A B allowed each one to know what the other is thinking. No error. C D E The correct answer is (D). The error is a shift in tense from past (had and allowed) to present (is). Perhaps the underlined portion sounds off to you when you read it silently. If this were the real test, you would trust your instinct, mark your answer, and continue. Remember: Don’t waste time trying to figure out the technical name for the error. Don’t waste time considering the non-underlined portions of the sentence, even if you think they could be improved. Assume anything that isn’t underlined is correct. There will be only ONE error per sentence. If you find an error you’re sure of, don’t squander time looking for more. Remember: You DO NOT have to know the technical name of the error, so don’t waste valuable moments trying to pin a label on it. Consider the following: During the 1950s, a Hollywood scriptwriter, if accused of being a Communist, A B could be blacklisted, which meant they could not get jobs. No error. C D E The correct answer is (D). In this sentence, the plural pronoun does not agree with its singular antecedent. You SHOULD know what a pronoun is (a word that stands for a noun—in this case they), as well as what an antecedent is (a word or group of words that a pronoun refers to—in this case scriptwriter), but you don’t HAVE to. Again, for the test, all you have to know is what segment of the sentence the error is in.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

TRY THESE STRATEGIES

176

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Correct answers must follow the rules of standard written English. Look at this sentence. The button popped off Ilse’s suit just as she was fixing to leave the house, A B so she was late for the interview. No error. C D E The correct answer is (B). The phrase fixing to is not standard written English; it is a colloquialism for preparing to. (Again, don’t waste time wondering if popped off is standard English. It doesn’t matter. That phrase is not underlined.)

www.petersons.com

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

177

.................................................................

Some sentences are correct. No sentence contains multiple errors. In each sentence below, five elements, labeled (A) through (E), are underlined and lettered. One (and ONLY one) of the underlined elements may contain an error. In choosing your answer, be sure to follow the rules of standard written English. You can assume that the parts of the sentences not underlined are correct. If the sentence has no error, choose Þ E , “No error.” O 1. If we leave now, we should get A to the circus in time to see the B C elephant march, which is more better D than the trapeze artists’ performances. No error. E 2. In the forest, the elves were dancing, A B yodeling, and also they were cavorting; C however, no one saw them. No error. D E 3. When riding a motorcycle, a helmet A should be worn, and one should also B C be clothed in long trousers. No error. D E 4. The only alternative that one can A choose is to decide to finish what B C you started. No error. D E 5. There are several reasons to revise A B your essay: it will be shorter, C more polished, and they will find it C D easier to read. No error. E

6. The horseback riders in the holiday A parade appear on ten parades every B year and enjoy the activity C very much. No error. D E 7. No matter what your age is, A our teacher said, you were never too B C old to learn yoga. No error. D E 8. If you invent something new, to preA vent its being stolen, registering it B C with the patent office immediately. D No error. E 9. Daytime television dramas are called soap operas because A they were originally sponsored by B soap companies and, even in the beginning, are intended to C make selling products easier. D No error. E

www.petersons.com

exercises

Directions: The following questions will test your knowledge of grammar, usage, diction, and idiom.

..........................................................................................

EXERCISES: IDENTIFYING SENTENCE ERRORS

178

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

10. Each of these organizations, while appearing perfectly legitimate A on the surface, was accused of B C doctoring their books. No error. D E 11. Some critics say that the United A States Supreme Court is unresponsive with the needs of poor B C people and should be reformed. D No error. E

15. I fixed cole-slaw, baked beans, and A chicken wings to take to the company B picnic for my coworkers C with spicy barbecue sauce on them. D No error. E 16. Every one of the girls in my family, A including Linda Sue, has a tin ear for B music, but the boys sing marvelous. C D No error. E

12. The genius of Albert Einstein A is different from Pablo Picasso, but B both men are geniuses nonetheless. C D No error. E

17. After skiing both the lower, milder A slope and Dead Man’s Drop,

13. In ancient times, the court jester (a A kind of early-day comic, usually

18. Our American History professor, the A renowned Professor Bing, described B Joseph McCarthy’s persecution of C suspected Communists

male, called the Fool) had license to tell the king any truth B without fear of punishment, C provided they told that truth with D humor. No error. E 14. The two electrical engineers, Mohammed and Fred, rides to work together A every morning, but Mohammed B walks home at night for the exercise. C D No error. E

www.petersons.com

I like it better, so that’s where I’m B C going next Saturday. No error. D E

in class Wednesday. No error. D E 19. Would you like to come to the movies A B with Ayana and me, and go to dinner C D afterward? No error. E 20. Glancing up uneasily, I saw that, A B close to the tops of the trees, hanged C D a fat goblin moon. No error. E

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

179

.................................................................

D C A D

5. 6. 7. 8.

D B C C

9. C 10. D 11. B 12. B

13. 14. 15. 16.

D A D D

17. 18. 19. 20.

B D E D

1. The correct answer is (D). The sentence contains faulty comparison. The correct comparative word is simply better. 2. The correct answer is (C). This sentence would be more effective if it made use of parallel structure: dancing, yodeling, and cavorting. (As the phrase is written, it is unnecessarily wordy as well.) 3. The correct answer is (A). The error is one of a misplaced modifier: the helmet seems to be riding a motorcycle, rather than a person. 4. The correct answer is (D). The error here is one of shift in person from third (one) to second (you). 5. The correct answer is (D). The pronoun they has no antecedent in the sentence. 6. The correct answer is (B). The error is one of misuse of a preposition. The phrase should read appear in.

8. The correct answer is (C). This sentence has mixed, illogical construction. To correct it, change choice (C) to: stolen, you should register it. 9. The correct answer is (C). The error is one of shift in tense, from were to are. Although the first clause is in present tense, the phrase in the beginning points to an event in the past. 10. The correct answer is (D). This is a pronoun/antecedent error: The plural pronoun (their) refers to a singular antecedent (each). (Note that the pronoun does NOT refer to organizations.) 11. The correct answer is (B). The error is one of misuse of the preposition with. The correct wording would be unresponsive to. 12. The correct answer is (B). The error is one of faulty comparison. The genius of Albert Einstein is different from the genius of Pablo Picasso, not from Picasso himself. 13. The correct answer is (D). The error is a shift in number from one (the court jester) to more than one (they). 14. The correct answer is (A). The error is one of faulty subject-verb agreement—the subject is plural (The two electrical engineers) and the verb is singular (rides). The correct version would be The two electrical engineers . . . ride . . .

www.petersons.com

exercises

7. The correct answer is (C). The sentence contains a shift in tense from present (is) to past (were).

answers

1. 2. 3. 4.

..........................................................................................

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS

180

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

15. The correct answer is (D). This is a misplaced modifier. The chicken wings had sauce on them, not (we hope) the coworkers. A modifier should not be remote from the thing modified. 16. The correct answer is (D). The error here is in the use of an adjective (marvelous) instead of an adverb (marvelously) to modify the verb sing. 17. The correct answer is (B). This is an error of vague pronounce reference. It’s impossible to tell which ski area the speaker likes better. 18. The correct answer is (D). The error is one of misplaced modifier. Ask yourself, “What happened in class?” 19. The correct answer is (E). The sentence is correctly written. 20. The correct answer is (D). The mistake is one of incorrect verb form. The correct form here is hung.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

181

.................................................................

What to Expect Improving Sentences questions are designed to test your capacity to identify, from five choices, the sentence that is the: •

Most clear and precise

•

Least awkward or ambiguous

•

Most effective in expression

For Improving Sentences questions, you will be instructed as follows: Directions: The sentences below test correctness and effectiveness of expression. When you choose your answers, select the sentence or sentence part that is most clear and correct and that conforms best to the requirements of standard written English. Each of the following sentences is either underlined or contains an underlined part. Under each sentence, there are five ways of phrasing the underlined portion. Choice (A) repeats the original; the other four options are different. You can assume that the elements that are not underlined are correct. Choose the answer that best expresses the meaning of the original sentence. If in your opinion the original sentence is the best option, choose it. Your choice should produce the most effective sentence. Example: I am going to the store to buy a food item, which is bread. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

buy buy buy buy buy

a food item, which is bread a food item, bread bread a food item, which is called bread what is called bread

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ Þ D Þ E Þ O O O O

How to Approach Improving Sentences Questions READ WIDELY With this advice, we’re breaking the rule against redundancy. But there is no way around it—if you avoid reading, you’re making a huge, life-altering mistake. WRITE WHENEVER YOU GET THE CHANCE Again, write a lot. And, as previously suggested, get a good handbook that contains sections on both grammar and style to help you through the rough spots.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

IMPROVING SENTENCES

182

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

PRACTICE Do you want to make the rugby team? Then practice. Do you want to learn to play the trombone or bake prize-winning cookies? Then practice. Do you want to do well on the Writing Skills section of the PSAT/NMSQT? The way to accomplish that is obvious. TRY THESE STRATEGIES Following are tips and reminders you can use in approaching the Improving Sentences portion of the PSAT/NMSQT. Examine the original sentence carefully, especially the underlined portion. Speak the sentence silently and listen for clunkiness or strangeness. Try reading this sentence aloud: I have a guinea pig, two white mice, and a gerbil for pets, which my mom says I can’t name the gerbil after my sister.

Hear it? There’s something wrong, or clunky, about the sentence. It’s awkward—it just doesn’t sound right. If the sentence sounds odd, identify the problem segment. Now see if you can identify the awkward segment from among the five choices. I have a guinea pig, two white mice, and a gerbil for pets, which my mom says I can’t name the gerbil after my sister. (A) pets, which my mom says I can’t name the gerbil after my sister. (B) pets, which my mom says. I can’t name the gerbil after my sister. (C) pets, which my mom says I can’t name the gerbil. After my sister. (D) pets; my mom says I can’t name the gerbil after my sister. (E) pets, my mom says I can’t name the gerbil after my sister. The correct answer is (D). Which is a relative pronoun and must have an antecedent. Is there any noun in the sentence that which can logically refer to? No. Therefore, choices (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect. Choice (E) is wrong because it contains a comma splice (two complete sentences joined by a comma).

If the problem is repeated in any of the choices, you can discard those choices as possible answers. In the above example, the phrase which my mom says is repeated in choices (A), (B), and (C), so if you recognize the relative pronoun error, these choices are eliminated as possibilities.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

183

.................................................................

My cousin is now attending Briggs Community College. (A) My cousin is now attending Briggs Community College. (B) Briggs Community College is now being attended by my cousin. (C) At this point in time, my cousin is attending Briggs Community College. (D) My cousin is currently attending Briggs Community College at the present time. (E) Even as we speak, my cousin is presently attending Briggs Community College. The correct answer is (A). The original sentence is clearer and less wordy than the other four choices. Also remember: if more than one version is grammatically correct, choose the clearest, most effective version. Choose the best answer from the five choices, even if you can think of a better revision than the ones offered.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Choice (A) always repeats the original sentence. If the original sentence is more clear and effective than any of the other choices, mark (A) and move on. For example:

184

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

EXERCISES: IMPROVING SENTENCES Directions: The sentences below test correctness and effectiveness of expression. When you choose your answers, select the sentence or sentence part that is most clear and correct and that conforms best to the requirements of standard written English. Each of the following sentences is either underlined or contains an underlined part. Under each sentence, there are five ways of phrasing the underlined portion. Choice (A) repeats the original; the other four options are different. You can assume that the elements that are not underlined are correct. Choose the answer that best expresses the meaning of the original sentence. If in your opinion the original sentence is the best option, choose it. Your choice should produce the most effective sentence.

1. In Hollywood, all the stars’ handprints (including Marilyn Monroe’s and Jane Russell’s) reside at Mann’s Chinese Theater. (A) In Hollywood, all the stars’ handprints (including Marilyn Monroe’s and Jane Russell’s) reside at Mann’s Chinese Theater. (B) All the stars’ handprints are, including Marilyn Monroe’s and Jane Russell’s, at Mann’s Chinese Theater in Hollywood. (C) Mann’s Chinese Theater in Hollywood is the place where all the star’s handprints are, including Marilyn Monroe’s and Jane Russell’s. (D) Mann’s Chinese Theater in Hollywood is the place where all the stars’ handprints are. (E) Mann’s Chinese Theater in Hollywood is the place where all the stars’ handprints, including Marilyn Monroe’s and Jane Russell’s, are. 2. When choosing a melon in the produce department of the grocery store, look for one that is slightly soft and not too green. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

slightly soft and not too slightly, soft and not too slightly soft: and not too slightly soft; and not too slightly soft and, not too

www.petersons.com

3. When preparing for an important test, it is necessary not only to study the material, and to get a good night’s sleep the night before. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

material, material, material, material, material,

and to get in other words getting meanwhile to get in addition to get but to get

4. For months I received anonymous phone calls, who made strange noises then hung up. (A) For months I received anonymous phone calls, who made strange noises then hung up. (B) For months I received an anonymous phone call from someone who made strange noises then hung up. (C) Someone made strange noises, then hung up, on anonymous phone calls I received for months. (D) I received an anonymous phone call from someone for months, then hung up after making strange noises. (E) For months I received anonymous phone calls from someone who made strange noises, then hung up.

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

185

.................................................................

6. Once we start up the mountain, and there will be no turning back. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

and there will be no turning back. there will be no turning back. so there will be no turning back. thus there will be no turning back. but there will be no turning back.

7. Though often glamorized by fans, the lives of film stars are quite hard. (A) Though often glamorized by fans, the lives of film stars are quite hard. (B) In reality, the lives of film stars are quite hard; however, it is often glamorized by fans. (C) Often glamorized by fans is the life of the film star; however, they are quite hard. (D) In reality quite hard, fans often glamorize the lives of film stars. (E) Glamorized by fans, in reality quite hard are the lives of film stars. 8. Some people believe that “familiarity breeds contempt”; moreover, it’s not necessarily true. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

moreover, secondly, in addition, however, furthermore,

(A) I had my purse stolen in Kansas City, but did not worry about it. What a great city! (B) I had had my purse stolen. In Kansas City. But I did not worry about it, what a great city! (C) I had my purse stolen in Kansas City. But did not worry about it. What a great city! (D) I had my purse stolen. In Kansas City, but I did not worry about it. What a great city! (E) I had my purse stolen. In Kansas City, but I did not worry about it. What a great city! 10. Tell me why did you dress for the concert. Like that? (A) Tell me why did you dress for the concert. Like that? (B) Tell me why did you dress for the concert like that? (C) Tell me. Why did you dress for the concert like that? (D) Tell me. Why did you dress for the concert? Like that? (E) Tell me. Why did you dress? For the concert? Like that? 11. French philosopher Rene Descartes was a devout Catholic; therefore, his writings did more to undermine church authority than those of any other philosopher of his day. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Catholic; therefore, his writings Catholic, yet his writings Catholic, when his writings Catholic, where his writings Catholic; meanwhile, his writings

www.petersons.com

exercises

(A) I do not like codfish as well as my Aunt Rhoda. (B) I do not like codfish as well as my Aunt Rhoda does. (C) Codfish I do not like, as well as my Aunt Rhoda. (D) I do not like, as well as my Aunt Rhoda, codfish. (E) Codfish I do not like, my Aunt Rhoda either.

9. I had my purse stolen in Kansas City, but did not worry about it. What a great city!

..........................................................................................

5. I do not like codfish as well as my Aunt Rhoda.

186

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

12. Neither Walt Whitman nor Herman Melville were appreciated during their lifetimes. (A) were appreciated during their lifetimes. (B) was appreciated during their lifetime. (C) was appreciated during his lifetime. (D) have been appreciated during their lifetime. (E) were appreciated during his lifetime. 13. A prophet can expect to be disbelieved when you predict the end of the world. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

when when when when when

you predict one predicts predicting we predict they predict

www.petersons.com

14. When not playing football, NFL star Rosie Greer enjoyed doing needlepoint. Which surprised his fans. (A) (B) (C) (D)

needlepoint. needlepoint, needlepoint, needlepoint. surprised (E) needlepoint,

Which surprised which surprised which he surprised Whereas he which he surprises

15. What about Serena and I? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

What about Serena and I? What about Serena and me? What about Serena and myself? Myself, what about, and Serena? What about I, myself, and Serena?

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

187

.................................................................

C A E

4. 5. 6.

E B B

7. 8. 9.

A D A

10. C 11. B 12. C

13. 14. 15.

C B B

1. The correct answer is (C). Choices (B) and (E) are unnecessarily convoluted. In choice (A), the word reside is inexact when applied to handprints. Choice (D) leaves out part of the information. 2. The correct answer is (A). The other choices have unnecessary or erroneous punctuation. 3. The correct answer is (E). This choice is grammatical and shows a contrast. The other choices are illogically constructed. 4. The correct answer is (E). The other choices are unclear because they are awkwardly constructed. Choice (B) is almost right; however, one cannot receive only one anonymous phone call for months. 5. The correct answer is (B). The other choices are unnecessarily convoluted and also show faulty comparison.

7. The correct answer is (A). This is the only clear answer. In choices (B) and (C), the pronouns it and they do not agree with the words to which they refer. In choice (D), the first phrase seems to refer to fans when it should refer to the lives of film stars. Choice (E) is unnecessarily convoluted. 8. The correct answer is (D). The word however provides the clearest and most logical transition between these two ideas; the other choices are less logical. 9. The correct answer is (A). The other choices create sentence fragments. 10. The correct answer is (C). Choices (A), (D), and (E) create fragments. Choice (B) is a run-on sentence. 11. The correct answer is (B). The word yet provides the clearest and most logical transition between these two contrasting sentence elements. 12. The correct answer is (C). In this choice, the singular subject (Neither) agrees with the singular verb (is). 13. The correct answer is (C). In this choice, there is no unnecessary shift in person; the other answers contain shifts in person from prophet to you, one, and we. (The only other correct form would be when he or she predicts, which is not among the choices.) 14. The correct answer is (B). Choices (A) and (D) contain sentence fragments. Choices (C) and (E) are illogically constructed. 15. The correct answer is (B). The other choices contain errors in the case of the pronoun I. www.petersons.com

exercises

6. The correct answer is (B). No connecting word is needed to relate the first half of the sentence to the second. Connecting words between the two halves of the sentence turn the sentence into a fragment.

answers

1. 2. 3.

..........................................................................................

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS

188

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

IMPROVING PARAGRAPHS What to Expect The Improving Paragraphs section is designed to test your ability to make choices that will: •

Improve the logic of a passage in need of revision

•

Improve the coherence of a passage in need of revision

•

Improve the organization of a passage in need of revision

•

Identify faulty sentences within a passage in need of revision

For Improving Paragraphs questions, you will be instructed as follows: Directions: Read the passage below and answer the questions that come after it. Some of the questions will ask you to improve sentence structure and word choice. Other questions will refer to parts of the essay or to the entire essay and ask you to improve organization and development. Base your decisions on the rules of standard written English, and mark your answer on the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

How to Approach Improving Paragraphs Questions Following are tips on how to deal with the Improving Paragraphs questions on the PSAT/ NMSQT. READ WIDELY Read essays and nonfiction pieces wherever you can find them to get a feel for the way whole compositions are put together. Pay attention to the way the essays you read are organized and how the author marks transitions from one idea to another in order to achieve overall coherence. WRITE WHENEVER YOU CAN Again, take every opportunity to write. Letters are good practice. Think about the things you enjoy, whether they be sporting events, the opera, or even just shopping. Write a paragraph or two on the subject. Aim for coherence. Try out different organizational schemes: cause-and-effect, comparison–contrast, chronological order, and so forth. Refer to your handbook of grammar and style. PRACTICE If you were planning an audition, you’d practice. Well, in a sense you are—an audition for college. So again, do the exercises in this book, all of them, and pay close attention to the answer explanations at the end of each test.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

189

.................................................................

Following are suggestions on how to approach an Improving Paragraphs item. Read the whole essay quickly to get an overall sense of it. Don’t linger over the errors you will find during this first read-through. You’ll be asked questions about these. EXAMPLE (1) The lounge was high-ceilinged and oppressive, with dark paneling, faded Oriental carpeting, and outsized leather chairs and couches. (2) As I crossed it, I felt strangely disembodied, an observer of myself, alone in a roomful of strangers. (3) At the far end, above a fireplace, hung a huge portrait of a round-faced, unsmiling, middle-aged man in black gown and purple-edged doctoral hood. (4) In the center of the room stood a long table, which held a coffee urn, a dozen small glasses of orange juice, and an ornate, silver tray of chocolate eclairs and Danish sweet rolls. (5) His eyes seemed to follow me as I crossed the room. (6) Beside the tray of Danish, a tall man in his early forties, impeccably dressed and sporting a feathery, copper-colored beard, was leaning down close to a woman in a yellow dress, gazing at her and speaking softly. (7) The woman, in her mid-forties, with a thin face and wispy blond hair, was watching the tall man through narrowed eyes. (8) I had the impression the woman was cogitating on something else at the present time. The essay as a whole would be more coherent if sentence 5 were placed before (A) sentence 2. (B) sentence 3. (C) sentence 4. (D) sentence 7. (E) sentence 8. The correct answer is (C). The man in the picture should be mentioned before the statement His eyes seemed to follow. . . . It is true that two men are mentioned, the one in the picture and the one standing beside the table. However, choice (D) is wrong, because the tall man’s eyes cannot seem to follow the narrator, as the tall man is looking at the blond woman. Remember, for each question, be sure to take into account the context of the segment you’re being asked about. Make certain that your revision (if any) makes sense in terms of the whole essay.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

TRY THESE STRATEGIES

190

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Pay attention to the style and tone. Don’t just concentrate on the content of the essay. Suppose the second question on the above essay were the following: Which of the following is the clearest, most effective version of sentence 8 (repeated below)? I had the impression the woman was cogitating on something else at the present time. (A) I had the impression the woman was cogitating on something else at the present time. (B) I had the impression the woman was thinking about something else. (C) I had the impression the woman was cogitating on something else. (D) I had the impression the woman was thinking about something else at the present time. (E) I had the impression the woman was thinking about something else at present. The correct answer is (B). It is the least wordy and eliminates the pretentious word cogitating, which does not fit in with the style of the rest of the essay.

COMMON GRAMMAR AND USAGE PROBLEMS Here is a list of common grammar and usage problems you may find on the PSAT/NMSQT: Shifts in tense: I went to the supermarket and buy some pickle loaf. Shifts in number or person: If one wants to take the PSAT/NMSQT as a sophomore, they can. Misuse of prepositions: I was attentive on my girlfriend, but still she dumped me. (The correct form here would be to.) Errors in subject-verb agreement: The pounding of the drums are giving me a headache. (The subject here is pounding, not drums, so the correct verb form would be is.) Errors in pronoun-antecedent agreement: We love our drives into the country, because it gives us a sense of freedom. (Because the pronoun refers to a plural noun, it should be plural as well. The correct form to refer to drives would be they.) Misplaced parts (These will often, though not always, sound humorous): Frightened to death, Milton’s knees buckled. (It was Milton who was frightened, not his knees. You might say, Frightened to death, Milton felt his knees buckle.) Misuse of idioms: Many the man has met that fate. (The correct idiom would be Many a man . . . ) Confusion of adjectives and adverbs: I did beautiful on the test. (Beautiful is an adjective; it describes a thing. The correct word would be an adverb, beautifully.)

www.petersons.com

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

191

.................................................................

Errors in parallel structure: I came, I saw, also definitely I conquered. (Parallel grammatical form can make a sentence effective and memorable: I came, I saw, I conquered.) Wordiness: At this point in time, I will most surely go with you. (I will go with you says what it needs to and has more punch.) Mixed, illogical, or “strange” construction: When Myra plays the saxophone drives her neighbors crazy. (This is an adverb clause plus predicate. The sentence should read: Myra’s saxophone playing drives her neighbors crazy.) Comma splices and run-on sentences: Wait a minute while I get my coat, I’ll give you a ride. (This is an example of a comma splice.) Wait a minute while I get my coat I’ll give you a ride. (This is an example of a run-on sentence.) Correct revisions would be Wait a minute while I get my coat; I’ll give you a ride. (or) Wait a minute while I get my coat. I’ll give you a ride. Sentence fragments: My sister always studying. (The main verb is missing. The sentence should read: My sister is always studying.) Awkwardness or ambiguity: An example of poor manners is a dinner guest, especially when she slurps her soup. (It is slurping that is poor manners, not the guest. A correct version would be: An example of poor manners is a guest’s slurping her soup.) Faulty use of transitions: Ashur was small, likewise strong. (Likewise indicates that the two elements are similar. To indicate a contrast, write: Ashur was small but strong.)

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Comparison errors: I have a more busier schedule than you do. (Don’t “doublecompare”—the right term is just busier.) Arthur is the fastest of the two. (Use the correct form for comparing two items, which in this case is faster.) Arthur is the faster of us all. (Use the correct form for comparison of more than two items, which in this case is fastest.)

192

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

EXERCISES: IMPROVING PARAGRAPHS Directions: Read the passage below and answer the questions that come after it. Some of the questions will ask you to improve sentence structure and word choice. Other questions will refer to parts of the essay or to the entire essay and ask you to improve organization and development. Base your decisions on the rules of standard written English, and mark your answer on the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

THE FOLLOWING ESSAY EXCERPT IS A DRAFT THAT NEEDS REVISION. (1) I found the room unsettling. (2) It was small and immensely crowded, two of its walls spanned by floor-to-ceiling bookshelves, the other two paneled in dark walnut. (3) Its windows were shuttered. (4) A massive oak desk was laden with notebooks and papers. (5) It dominated the cramped space. (6) The remainder was taken up by several battered metal filing cabinets and an ancient leather chair and sofa. (7) The room had evidently been shut up for some time, permeated as it was by a musty smell; there was another, fainter odor, like an under-taste, which I recognized as the odor of formaldehyde. (8) Over every surface, you could see dust lay like a fine layer of ash. (9) Against one wall loomed a tall, glassfronted display case. (10) Harsh interior lights had been activated by the switch beside the door—the case contained birds preserved by taxidermy. (11) There perched a song sparrow on the top shelf, a starling, a jackdaw, a kite, and a large, dark, bluntwinged bird I did not recognize. (12) On a white card beneath this specimen were written the words: Nannopterum harrisi, flightless cormorant, Galapagos Islands. (13) Birds are fascinating, sometimes exotic creatures, and their scientific study is definitely worthwhile. (14) The right-hand case contained a bird with a slender, curved beak and crimson plumage; its card read Eudocimus ruber, Scarlet Ibis. (15) Just beneath the Ibis stood a snowy-feathered bird whose card identified it as a White Tern, Cap D’Ambre, Madagascar. (16) The birds were excellently preserved, uncannily lifelike, their eyes watching brightly from behind the glass.

www.petersons.com

1. Which of the following is the best revision of sentences 4 and 5 (reproduced below)? A massive oak desk was laden with notebooks and papers. It dominated the cramped space. (A) A massive oak desk, was laden with: notebooks and papers. It dominated the cramped space. (B) A massive oak desk, laden with notebooks and papers, dominated the cramped space. (C) A massive oak desk, laden with notebooks and papers. It dominated the cramped space. (D) A massive oak desk was laden with, notebooks and papers, dominated the cramped space. (E) A massive oak desk was laden with notebooks and papers. Dominated the cramped space. 2. Which of the following is the best revision of the underlined portion of sentence 11 (reproduced below), so that there is a smoother transition between sentences 10 and 11? There perched a song sparrow on the top shelf, a starling, a jackdaw, a kite, and a large, dark, blunt-winged bird I did not recognize. (A) There perched a song sparrow (B) Standing on the top shelf, there perched a song sparrow (C) On the top shelf perched a song sparrow (D) A song sparrow perched on the top shelf, plus there was a (E) A song sparrow, perching on the top shelf

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

193

.................................................................

Sentence Sentence Sentence Sentence Sentence

11 12 13 14 15

4. The organizational pattern of paragraph 2 can best be described as a general statement followed by (A) (B) (C) (D)

cause-and-effect analysis. comparison–contrast analysis. chronological order of events. elements in order of importance. (E) specific descriptive details.

Over every surface, you could see dust lay like a fine layer of ash. (A) Delete “over every surface.” (B) Delete “you could see.” (C) Delete “dust lay like a fine layer of ash.” (D) Add the word “everywhere” to the end of the sentence. (E) Change “lay” to “lie.”

www.petersons.com

exercises

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

5. Which of the following revisions of sentence 8 (reproduced below) would make it more consistent with the rest of the passage?

..........................................................................................

3. To improve the coherence of paragraph 2, which of the following sentences should be deleted?

194

PART III: PSAT/NMSQT Review

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS 1.

B

2.

C

3.

C

4.

E

5.

B

1. The correct answer is (B). It is correctly written and avoids the choppiness of the original. Choice (A) incorrectly inserts a comma between subject and verb and makes ineffective use of a colon. Choice (C) contains a sentence fragment. Choice (D) improperly inserts a comma between a preposition (with) and its object (notebooks and papers). Choice (E) contains a sentence fragment. 2. The correct answer is (C). This creates the smoothest, most economical transition. Choice (A) leaves out information. Choices (B) and (D) are wordy. Choice (E) is ungrammatical. 3. The correct answer is (C). This comment on birds interrupts the flow of the paragraph, which is mainly a listing of the birds in the glass case. 4. The correct answer is (E). The birds in the glass cases are simply described. None of the other choices apply to the paragraph. 5. The correct answer is (B). The use of second person (you) is inconsistent with the point of view of the rest of the essay.

www.petersons.com

Chapter 6: Writing Skills Review

195

.................................................................

•

•

•

Identifying Sentence Error questions are designed to measure your ability to identify: •

Grammatical errors

•

Incorrect usage

•

Poor diction (word choice)

•

Faulty use of idiom

Improving Sentences questions are designed to test your capacity to identify, from five choices, the sentence that is •

Most clear and precise

•

Least awkward or ambiguous

•

Most effective in expression

Improving Paragraphs questions are designed to test your ability to make choices that will: •

Improve the logic of a passage in need of revision

•

Improve the coherence of a passage in need of revision

•

Improve the organization of a passage in need of revision

•

Identify faulty sentences within a passage in need of revision

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

SUMMING IT UP

P ART IV

........................................................

TWO PRACTICE TESTS

...................................................................

PRACTICE TEST 2 PRACTICE TEST 3

✁

199

.................................................................

SECTION 1 A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 4. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 21. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 22. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 23. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 24. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 17. O

A O B O C O D O E 25. O

A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 17. O

A O B O C O D O E 4. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

SECTION 2

SECTION 3 A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 21. O

A O B O C O D O E 4. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 22. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 23. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 24. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 25. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 17. O

A O B O C O D O E 26. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 27. O

www.petersons.com

answer sheet

ANSWER SHEET PRACTICE TEST 2

..........................................................................................

-------------------------------------------------------------------

Practice Test 2

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 4 A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

4.

A O

B O

C O

D O

E O

11.

12.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

13.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

14.

15.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

16.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

. O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

17.

18.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

19.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

20.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

www.petersons.com

✁

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

-------------------------------------------------------------------

200

✁

201

.................................................................

A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 27. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 28. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 29. O

4.

17.

E O

A O B O C O D O E 30. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 31. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 32. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 33. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 21. O

A O B O C O D O E 34. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 22. O

A O B O C O D O E 35. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 23. O

A O B O C O D O E 36. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 24. O

A O B O C O D O E 37. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 25. O

A O B O C O D O E 38. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 26. O

A O B O C O D O E 39. O

A O

B O

C O

D O

E O

A O

B O

C O

D O

www.petersons.com

answer sheet

SECTION 5

..........................................................................................

-------------------------------------------------------------------

Practice Test 2

Practice Test 2

.............................................................................

25 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES For each question below, choose the best answer from the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Directions: Each sentence below has either one or two blanks in it and is followed by five choices, labeled (A) through (E). These choices represent words or phrases that have been left out. Choose the word or phrase that, if inserted into the sentence, would best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Canine massage is a veterinary technique for calming dogs that are extremely ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

inept disciplined controlled stressed restrained

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ C Þ Þ E Þ O O O O

1. While maintaining an outward appearance of religious ______, medieval scholar Peter Abelard revealed, in his writings, hope for the triumph of reason over faith. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2. My cat Lloyd loves to go for car rides and will jump into the back seat with ______ whenever he is invited. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

heterodoxy orthodoxy incredulity vacillation skepticism

devotion aggravation dedication alacrity apathy

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

203

practice test 2

SECTION 1

204

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

3. My sister Rose is a/an ______ person, always objecting to everything I want to do, while my brother Jamal is, by contrast, nearly always ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

feisty. .obedient depressed. .joyous arrogant. .disdainful pretentious. .carefree contentious. .accommodating

4. The ______ of women in physics and astronomy is cause for concern, because it ______ these sciences of the rich brain power of half the human race. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

paucity. .deprives celebration. .dispossesses poverty. .preempts audacity. .relieves scarcity. .assures

5. The monks of New Skete believe that dogs are often willing to please without hope of reward, that they are able to show a kind of ______ caring. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions: Read each of the passages carefully, then answer the questions that come after them. The answer to each question may be stated overtly or only implied. You will not have to use outside knowledge to answer the questions—all the material you will need will be in the passage itself. In some cases, you will be asked to read two related passages and answer questions about their relationship to one another.

refractory altruistic incautious preemptive precocious

www.petersons.com

QUESTIONS 6–7 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. This passage is from the U.S. State Department Web site. Line

5

10

15

In 1963, in Moscow, the Treaty Banning Nuclear Weapon Tests (. . .) was signed by the United States, Great Britain, and the Soviet Union. The Test Ban Treaty of 1963 prohibits nuclear weapons tests “or any other nuclear explosion” in the atmosphere, in outer space, and under water. While not banning tests underground, the Treaty does prohibit nuclear explosions in this environment if they cause “radioactive debris to be present outside the territorial limits of the State under whose jurisdiction or control” the explosions were conducted. In accepting limitations on testing, the nuclear powers accepted as a common goal “an end to the contamination of . . . [the human] environment by radioactive substances.” 6. Which word best describes the Test Ban Treaty of 1963? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Comprehensive Intensified Inflated Limited Retroactive

7. The passage suggests that the main purpose of the treaty was to prevent global (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

warfare. detonation. pollution. duplicity. concession.

Practice Test 2

205

.................................................................

This passage is based on an e-mail sent to Web site operators by the Federal Trade Commission beginning in November 2001.

This passage is adapted from an essay, “When Art and Morality Collide . . . ,” by James Swafford (in National Endowment for the Arts magazine Humanities, July/August, 1997).

Line

5

10

15

Your Web site claims that a product or therapy you sell is effective in the treatment or cure of anthrax, smallpox, or another disease or health hazard that may be associated with recent reports about threats of terrorism. We are aware of no scientific basis for such claims. Without competent and reliable scientific evidence to substantiate these claims, the claims are illegal under the Federal Trade Commission Act and must be discontinued immediately. Violations of the FTC Act may result in legal action in the form of Federal District Court Injunction or Administrative Order. An order also may require that you pay money back to consumers. 8. Which word best describes the purpose of the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Advice Warning Opinion Rejection Reminder

9. The main purpose of the FTC e-mail is to command Web site owners to (A) (B) (C) (D)

repay consumers. cease making false claims. stop making terrorist threats. find scientific evidence for claims. (E) inform consumers the claims are false.

Line

5

10

15

20

In the 19th century, writer Oscar Wilde produced works that were widely deemed immoral. Of that historical period, 20th century essayist James Swafford writes: What purpose do literature and the visual arts serve? What responsibilities must they assume? These were important questions in the last century, as increasing literacy, inexpensive editions, the rise of lending libraries, public art exhibitions, and mass-produced prints from steel engravings made the verbal and visual arts available to the masses as never before . . . . Wilde ran afoul of [the expectation of moral purpose] on several occasions . . . . “All art is quite useless,” announces the last line of the preface to [Wilde’s novel], The Picture of Dorian Gray.

10. According to Swafford, questions about the purpose of art were important in the last century, because art had become increasingly (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

admired. accessible. irresponsible. anti-Evangelical. nontraditional.

11. What is the meaning of the phrase “ran afoul of” (line 15)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Denied the existence of Took up the cause of Played a part in Came in conflict with Showed ignorance of

practice test

QUESTIONS 10–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

..........................................................................................

QUESTIONS 8–9 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

206

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

QUESTIONS 12–20 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. This passage discusses the works of Nobel Prize winner Isaac Bashevis Singer. Line

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

In Isaac Bashevis Singer’s fictional world, seeming dualities—past and present, animate and inanimate, the supernatural and the ordinary world of the senses, even life and death—are not set in opposition or even juxtaposed, but rather they are fused, embedded in one another. There is no border between the cosmic and the mundane, because the two are not separate countries. In Singer’s stories, modes of existence usually thought to be dichotomous have their being on the same plane, and that plane is the world of matter, the world of phenomena. In approaching the stories, it is helpful first to divide them into three types. Those of the first type are set in the distant past, usually in the 17th or 18th century, in the Jewish shtetls of Eastern Europe, villages in which the streets are narrow and muddy, and gossip is the important means of gathering and conveying information. The characters include all sorts: rabbis, Hasidic scholars, wealthy businesspeople, students, prostitutes, and also supernatural beings, usually demons. Prominent among the characters is the scholar who withdraws from the world to read and study the mystical Cabala—or attempts unsuccessfully to withdraw, for frequently he (and occasionally she) is distracted from study by sex, or demons, or some violent outside force. Included in this group of stories are “The Slaughterer,” the story of Yoineh Meir, a ritual slaughterer whose job it is to kill livestock in accordance with religious laws, a man obsessed with guilt, who turns to the study of the Cabala even though he knows it is forbidden to young men; “Cockadoodledoo”— somewhat of an exception, since the narrator is a rooster, albeit one who

www.petersons.com

wants to understand the nature of God; and “The Black Wedding,” which features a demon. Around these stories, there is usually an aura of the folktale or fairy tale. Stories of the second type have historical and geographical settings 55 very different from those of the first. They usually take place in post World War II America, and many times are set in New York City. As in the first type, the central characters are Jewish, 60 although they are not necessarily orthodox. Like the characters in the first type, they represent all classes, from affluent businesspeople and physicians, to writers, to the poor of all 65 sorts. There are some supernatural characters, as well, but the characters in this type are predominantly human. Prominent among them is a certain kind of male character who is finan70 cially successful, but who is troubled by the ordinary human concerns of love and sex, physical illness, the riddle of death, and the nature of reality. The study of philosophy—Kant and Spinoza 75 are favorites—replace the study of the sacred books common to the first type of story. Among the stories in this group are “A Wedding in Brownsville” and “The Cafeteria” (both of which are 80 discussed below), as well as “The Seance,” in which it is ambiguous whether the rouged and mascaraed medium, Mrs. Kopitzky, is a fake. She “more than once” awakes from trances 85 to talk on the phone about “stocks, bonds, and dividends,” yet at the end of the story her skeptical boarder, Dr. Kalisher, seems to half-believe she is authentic. 90 Stories of the third type are confined to no particular time period and to no particular location—sometimes they are set in the ordinary human world and sometimes not. The distinctive 95 feature of this type is that its central characters are supernatural beings, usually demons but occasionally angels or disembodied souls. No matter how 100 fantastical their natures, however, these creatures, like their human 50

Practice Test 2

207

.................................................................

115

120

125

130

135

140

145

150

(A) the metaphysical world of Singer’s stories. (B) Singer’s religious beliefs. (C) historical aspects of Singer’s work. (D) autobiographical elements in Singer’s work. (E) superstition in Singer’s stories. 13. In the context of the passage, which of the following best expresses the meaning of the statement in lines 8–10 that, in Singer’s fictional world, “There is no border between the cosmic and the mundane”? (A) The seemingly dualistic elements of Singer’s stories are an integral part of one another. (B) In Singer’s stories, both God and demons frequently descend to earth and mingle with human beings. (C) Singer believes that the dead roam the earth and that sometimes we cannot tell who they are. (D) In Singer’s stories, the characters often wonder about the nature of God and reality. (E) Singer’s stories have many different kinds of settings and characters, yet they all have the same theme. 14. To which of the following does the word “phenomena” (line 16) refer? (A) Supernatural elements of the physical universe (B) Startling or incredible aspects of seemingly ordinary things and events (C) Those parts of the world that appear material and real to the senses (D) The realm of dead people who do not know they are dead (E) Obvious truths about the world at large

practice test

110

12. The passage is primarily concerned with

..........................................................................................

105

counterparts in the other story types, often wonder about the nature of God or reality, and they are frequently beset by problems that originate in the human world. Representative of this group are “Shiddah and Kuziba,” in which two demons, mother and son, find that their home, “nine yards inside the earth,” is being destroyed by a drill operated by the mysterious humans who occupy the world above them; and “The Last Demon,” in which a demon declares there are no demons left— “Why demons, when man himself is a demon?” (In the demonic tales, it is frequently unclear which is more evil, humans or demons.) The characters, settings, and historical periods in Singer’s stories, then, vary widely, yet under the surface there are striking similarities. Everywhere in them, the reader finds opposites, contraries, ambiguities. In the story “The Slaughterer,” the ritual slaughterer develops “an unfamiliar love” for “all that crawls and flies, breeds and swarms.” In “The Cafeteria,” the dead of the Nazi holocaust— both perpetrators and victims—come to sit in a cafeteria on Broadway. In “A Wedding in Brownsville,” a dead man, not realizing until the end of the story that he is dead, attends a wedding and sees among the other guests a woman he once loved, who died in the holocaust. (The dead often walk about in Singer’s stories, but they are not ethereal or ghostly; in fact, so substantial a part of the phenomenal world are they that neither the characters in the stories nor the reader can readily identify them.) So although Singer’s fictional realm is animistic and magical, it seems always to be rooted in the material world. Critic Irving Howe has said of Singer’s stories that they “work, or prey, upon the nerves. They leave one unsettled and anxious, the way a rationalist might feel if, waking at night in the woods, he suddenly found himself surrounded by a swarm of bats.”

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

208

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

15. What is the meaning of the word “dichotomous” in line 13? (A) Subjected to endless debate (B) Regarded as controversial (C) Presented in a disjointed fashion (D) Related to spiritual matters (E) Divided into two usually contradictory classifications 16. The author most likely divided the stories into three types in order to illustrate the idea that (A) Singer’s stories are too complex to be categorized precisely. (B) in spite of the many surface differences in the three types of stories, there are important similarities. (C) some of Singer’s stories deal with the ordinary world of people and some with the supernatural. (D) Singer does not write about a specific ethnic or racial group— his stories are universal. (E) Singer’s stories have orthodox religious underpinnings, in spite of their seemingly strange and unusual themes. 17. The author of the passage uses the story “The Slaughterer” (lines 125–128) to illustrate the fact that Singer’s stories often contain (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

symbolic language. supernatural elements. biographical details. contrary elements. wanton cruelty.

www.petersons.com

18. The story “Shiddah and Kuziba” (lines 107–112) demonstrates the author’s idea that, in Singer’s stories, (A) demons are usually more sympathetic than human beings. (B) demons often plague human characters who are searching after God. (C) demons are written about in the language of folk or fairy tales. (D) demons are understood to be metaphoric figures. (E) demons are often beset by problems from the human world. 19. Which of the following elements in the story “Cockadoodledoo” (lines 46–49) is exceptional among Singer’s stories? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The setting The point of view The historical period The structure of the story The central concern of the narrator

20. The final paragraph of the passage indicates that Singer’s stories are likely to leave the reader with a feeling of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

magic. dissatisfaction. inspiration. uneasiness. terror.

Practice Test 2

209

.................................................................

Line

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

Although many organizations— especially those connected to the agricultural industries—maintain that the benefits of methyl bromide outweigh its risks, methyl bromide is a toxic chemical that will poison, not only the target pests it is used against, but non-target organisms as well. Because it dissipates so rapidly into the atmosphere, this pesticide is most dangerous at the actual fumigation site, where human exposure to high concentrations is at a maximum. This exposure can result in central nervous system and respiratory system failure, as well as specific and severe deleterious actions on the lungs, eyes, and skin. Exposure of pregnant women may result in fetal defects. Depending upon dose, gross permanent disabilities or death may result. Assessments made by atmospheric scientists, under the authority of the World Meteorological Organization along with the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration, indicate that methyl bromide also contributes significantly to the destruction of earth’s stratospheric ozone layer, which protects life on earth from exposure to dangerous levels of ultraviolet light, a major cause of skin cancer, cataracts, and impaired immune systems. When ozone-degrading chemicals such as methyl bromide (whose sources include soil fumigation, as mentioned above, as well as the exhaust of automobiles using leaded gasoline) are emitted, the chlorine and bromine they contain catalyze destruction of the ozone. Worldwide, most of the methyl bromide used goes to fumigate soil for preplant purposes. The breakdown is

50

55

60

65

70

75

80

practice test

This passage, except for many of the authorial value judgments, is based on Environmental Protection Agency documents on the environmental impact of the pesticide methyl bromide and its planned phase-out.

70 percent to fumigate soil, 16 and 8 percent to fumigate durable and perishable commodities, respectively, and 6 percent to treat structures. Of all the methyl bromide used, North America uses the most, at 43 percent of the total. Asia uses 24 percent and Europe 24 percent, while the remaining 9 percent is used by Africa, South America, and Australia. In the United States, growers use 43 million pounds of methyl bromide each year. Of that, about 35 million pounds go for soil fumigation, 5 million for post-harvest uses, and 3 million for structural fumigation. This means that 81 percent of the chemical used goes to prepare the soil for vegetables, orchards, nurseries, and other crops—that is, 81 percent actually affects foods we take into our bodies. Because science has so definitely fingered methyl bromide as a culprit in destroying the ozone, regulatory actions are needed to control emissions. Under the Clean Air Act, methyl bromide had been scheduled for phase-out in the United States on January 1, 2001. In spite of its obvious hazards, however, much of the agricultural industry continues to lobby against discontinuing utilization of this pesticide, and Congress recently signed legislation to extend its use, beginning gradual phase-out by 2005.

..........................................................................................

QUESTIONS 21–25 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

210

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

21. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? (A) Although organizations and political bodies with vested interests support the use of methyl bromide, the facts show that it is too dangerous to go on using. (B) Congress has been remiss in failing to push for phase-out of methyl bromide by the year 2001. (C) Although methyl bromide is a dangerous chemical, it does have a number of beneficial uses. (D) Methyl bromide is hazardous, not only to individual human beings, but to humanity as a whole, since it is depleting the ozone layer. (E) In today’s society, politics and money always take precedence over the well-being of human beings. 22. In the context of the passage, to which of the following does the term “fumigation site” (lines 11–12) refer? (A) The address of the farm on which the pesticide is being used (B) The organisms being targeted by the pesticide (C) The place where the pesticide is actually added to the soil (D) The location of the company distributing the pesticide (E) The chemicals that make up the pesticide

www.petersons.com

23. Readers would probably be more likely to take political action against the use of methyl bromide if the author (A) included specific names of corporations and organizations that lobby for the continued use of methyl bromide. (B) added a detailed discussion of the scientific designation for ozone—O3—and how such designations are determined. (C) mentioned the exact amount of money saved by the reduction of crop loss through the use of methyl bromide. (D) gave the history of the passage of the Clean Air Act. (E) deleted mention of the action by Congress from the final paragraph. 24. What is the most likely reason the author included statistics in paragraph 3? (A) To reduce the likelihood that the reader will be offended by the final paragraph with its harsh criticism of Congress (B) To distract the reader from the fact that there might be fallacies in the central argument of the paper (C) To add weight to the central argument by giving concrete proof that methyl bromide is hazardous to humans (D) To make the paper and its central argument more persuasive to scientists and other academics (E) To demonstrate that North America has less concern than other countries for the harm that big corporations do to its citizens

Practice Test 2

211

.................................................................

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. www.petersons.com

practice test

(A) The bacteria and other organisms, such as worms, that are necessary to the production of food (B) The soil itself, into which the pesticide is injected (C) Livestock and other domestic animals (D) Human beings (E) Organisms that lie outside the range of distribution of methyl bromide

..........................................................................................

25. Which of the following does the passage imply is the most important of the “non-target organisms,” as the term is used in line 8?

212

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 2 20 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES Solve problems 1–20, then select the best of the choices given for each one and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. You may use available space on the page for scratchwork. Notes: 1. You may use a calculator. All of the numbers used are real numbers.

Reference Information

2. You may use the figures that accompany the problems to help you find the solution. Unless the instructions say that a figure is not drawn to scale, assume that it has been drawn accurately. Each figure lies in a plane unless the instructions say otherwise.

r

A 5 pr2 C 5 2pr

w

h w

h b

r

c

h b

a

2x

60

x s

2s

45

30

45

3x

s

1

bh V 5 ,wh V 5 pr2h c2 5 a2 1 b2 Special Right Triangles 2 The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

1. If

A 5 ,w

A5

2

of the area of a triangle equals 6 3 square inches, what is its area? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

˚

2 4 6 9 12

2. If 9x 1 5 5 23, what is the numerical value of 18x 1 5? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

3. What is the angle measure of a in the figure below?

46 41 36 32 It cannot be determined from the given information.

www.petersons.com

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

90° 95° 100° 110° 120°

4. The price of admission to a movie theater has increased 15%. If a ticket originally cost 5 dollars, what is the new price? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$4.25 $5.25 $5.75 $6.25 $6.75

Practice Test 2

213

................................................................. 3

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2

1 4

1

1 2

2

1 6

5 x, then

1 x

5

12 5 11 5 12 11 27 12 212 7

6. (x 1 y) 2 (x 2 y) 5 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

22y 22x 0 2x 12y 2y

7. 40 percent of 50 is four times what number? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

4 5 8 10 20

8. The net price of a television set is $306 after successive discounts of 15% and 10% off the marked price. What is the marked price? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

9. What is the value of x in the figure below?

$234.09 $400 $382.50 $408 None of the above

x (A)

=2 =3

(B) (C) 1 (D) 2 (E) 2=2 10. If x 5 =3 2 y, then what is y in terms of x? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

x2 5 3 2 y y 5 3 2 x2 y2 5 3 2 x2 y 5 9 2 x2 y 5 x2 2 9

11. (y 1 3)( 3 1 y) 5 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

y2 1 6y 1 9 9 2 y2 y2 1 9 6y y2

12. If the area of a square is 36 square meters, what is its perimeter? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

16 18 20 22 24

meters meters meters meters meters

practice test

1

..........................................................................................

5. If

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

214

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

7 , x , , which of the following 5 8 could be a value for x?

13. If

4

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

6 4 2 3 11 12 25 30 28 30

14. A baker’s helper earns 9 dollars per hour, including lunch and break time. This week, he works from 4 a.m. to noon on Monday, Tuesday, and Friday and from 5 a.m. to 11 a.m. on Wednesday and Thursday. How much money did the baker’s helper earn this week? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$36 $216 $324 $350 $369

15. A circle is inscribed in a square. If the area of the circle is 9p in2, what is the area of the square? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

3p in2 9p in2 36 in2 (36 2 9p) in2 9 in2

16. A cube with a volume of 64 cubic inches is sliced into smaller cubes, each with a side of 1 inch. What dimension is the side of the original cube? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

4 8 16 32 64

www.petersons.com

17. If

k

5 b and b 2 3 5 ay, which of the x following correctly expresses y? (A) (B) (C) (D)

~ay 1 3! k ~ay 2 3! k [~kx 2 3!~a!] x

S D S D k x

13 a

(E)

k x

23 a

18. The length of an arc of a circle equals 1 of the circle’s circumference. What 8 is the diameter of the circle if the length of the arc is p? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2.83 4 6.33p 8 10

19. At Boulder High,

6

of the students 10 are old enough to drive. Of these 1 students, drive their own cars to 3 school each day. What percent of the students at Boulder High drive their own cars to school every day? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

20% 25% 33% 50% 82%

Practice Test 2

215

.................................................................

0 2 7 8 10

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. www.petersons.com

practice test

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

..........................................................................................

20. If 0 ≤ a ≤ 3 and 5 ≤ b ≤ 8, what is the 16 ? least possible value of b 2a

216

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 3 27 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES For each question below, choose the best answer from the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Directions: Each sentence below has either one or two blanks in it and is followed by five choices, labeled (A) through (E). These choices represent words or phrases that have been left out. Choose the word or phrase that, if inserted into the sentence, would best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Canine massage is a veterinary technique for calming dogs that are extremely ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

inept disciplined controlled stressed restrained

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ C Þ Þ E Þ O O O O

1. James Lovelock has posited the theory of Gaia, which says that the earth is a single living organism— independent and ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

ambivalent self-regulating indolent static annihilative

2. With the computer program Windows, you can check for errors on your hard disk, as well as remove unnecessary files, thus ______ the performance of your computer. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

embodying adorning impeding optimizing depreciating

www.petersons.com

3. He was a vile person who lived to ______ wickedness and deceit—he was a/an ______ of lies. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

foment. .purveyor betray. .nullifier deliver. .disparager thwart. .embellisher decry. .proselytizer

4. My cousin Abebi is a/an ______ person—sociable, talkative, and a friend to all. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

obnoxious unpalatable gregarious parsimonious reticent

Practice Test 2

217

.................................................................

emerge. .deception recuse. .fantasy importune. .emanation divulge. .exudation immerse. .illusion

6. In the fall, the chilly wind circles up under the eaves of the house, carrying the first ______ of winter. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

premonition spectacle meandering sighting sensation

7. When it became obvious that Ben had ______ money from the petty cash fund, he was fired. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

opportuned pilfered discounted required desired

8. Because Mandisa’s job was so ______, she had a/an ______ of funds and was able to buy a boat and sail away to Greece. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

lucrative. .superfluity arduous. .penury remunerative. .audacity powerful. .mendicancy immodest. .surfeit

QUESTIONS 9–10 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. This excerpt is from Sir Thomas More’s book, Utopia (1515). Line

5

10

15

There are several sorts of religions [on the island of Utopia], not only in different parts of the island, but even in every town; some worshipping the sun, others the moon or one of the planets. . . . Yet the greater and wiser sort of them worship none of these, but adore one eternal, invisible, infinite, and incomprehensible Deity. . . . They differ in this: that one thinks the god whom he worships is this Supreme Being, and another thinks that his idol is that god; but they all agree in one principle, that whoever is this Supreme Being . . . is also that great essence to whose glory and majesty all honours are ascribed by the consent of all nations. 9. The attitude toward religion on the island of Utopia can best be described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

atheistic. fanatical. immature. primitive. tolerant.

10. The tone of the passage can best be described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

satirical. awed. dismissive. respectful. skeptical.

practice test

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions: Read each of the passages carefully and answer the questions that come after them. Base your answers on what is stated or implied, as well as on any introductory material provided.

..........................................................................................

5. At the movies, I could forget myself and the way life really was, settle down in the plush theater seat with my popcorn, and ______ myself in the ______ on the screen.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

218

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

QUESTIONS 11–13 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

13. What is the meaning of the word “propensity,” as used in the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The following excerpt is from an address by Senator Hillary Rodham Clinton, “New American Strategies for Security and Peace,” at the Center for American Progress on October 29, 2003. Line

5

10

15

Of course in a democracy, there always is tension between the information that the Executive Branch needs to keep secret and the information that must be provided to the public to have an informed citizenry. There are no easy answers to striking the right balance. But we must always be vigilant against letting our desire to keep information confidential be used as a pretext for classifying information that is more about political embarrassment than national security. Let me be absolutely clear. This is not a propensity that is confined to one party or the other. It is a propensity of power that we must guard against.

11. The main purpose of Clinton’s address is to advocate an end to (A) tension between the Executive Branch and the public. (B) secrets kept by the Executive Branch solely for political reasons. (C) witholding of information by the political party to which Clinton is opposed. (D) public insistance on the release of classified information. (E) false information released by the Executive branch. 12. A main implication of the passage is that, with information, comes (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

power. wisdom. security. deceit. confusion.

www.petersons.com

A right An entitlement A decree An idea An inclination

QUESTIONS 14–15 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. The following exerpt is from the U.S. Department of Energy archives. Line

5

10

15

[In 1929, Ernest] Lawrence invented a unique circular particle accelerator, which he referred to as his “proton merry-go-round,” but which became better known as the cyclotron. The first cyclotron was a pie-shaped concoction of glass, sealing wax, and bronze. A kitchen chair and a wire-coiled clothes tree were also enlisted to make the device work. Despite its Rube Goldberg appearance, the cyclotron proved Lawrence’s point: whirling particles around to boost their energies, then casting them toward a target like stones from a slingshot is the most efficient and effective way to smash open atomic nuclei.

14. In the context of the passage, the phrase “Rube Goldberg” most likely means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

impractical. sophisticated. technical. ingenious. inconspicuous.

15. The colloquial phrase “proton merry-go-round” primarily serves to make the passage more accessible to readers who (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

are uninterested in technolgy. lack technical expertise. plan to become scientists. understand complex metaphors. believe technology is dangerous.

Practice Test 2

219

.................................................................

Line

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

It is very seldom that mere ordinary people like John and myself secure ancestral halls for the summer. A colonial mansion, a hereditary estate, I would say a haunted house, all reach the height of romantic felicity—but that would be asking too much of fate! Still I will proudly declare that there is something queer about it. Else, why should it be let so cheaply? And why have stood so long untenanted? John laughs at me, of course, but one expects that in marriage. John is a physician, and PERHAPS—(I would not say it to a living soul, of course, but this is dead paper and a great relief to my mind)— PERHAPS that is one reason I do not get well faster. You see he does not believe I am sick! And what can one do? If a physician of high standing, and one’s own husband, assures friends and relatives that there is really nothing the matter with one but temporary nervous depression—a slight hysterical tendency—what is one to do? My brother is also a physician, and also of high standing, and he says the same thing. . . . [John] said we came here solely on my account, that I was to have perfect rest and all the air I could get. “Your exercise depends on your strength, my dear,” said he, “and your food somewhat on your appetite; but air you can absorb all the time.” So we took the nursery at the top of the house. It is a big, airy room, the whole floor nearly, with windows that look all ways, and air and sunshine galore. It was nursery first and then playroom and gymnasium, I should judge; for the windows are barred for little children,

50

55

60

65

70

75

Passage 2 From a short story that first appeared in 1839, “The Fall of the House of Usher,” by Edgar Allen Poe. Line

5

10

15

During the whole of a dull, dark, and soundless day in the autumn of the year, when the clouds hung oppressively low in the heavens, I had been passing alone, on horseback, through a singularly dreary tract of country; and at length found myself, as the shades of the evening drew on, within view of the melancholy House of Usher. I know not how it was—but, with the first glimpse of the building, a sense of insufferable gloom pervaded my spirit. I say insufferable; for the feeling was unrelieved by any of that half-pleasurable, because poetic, sentiment, with which the mind usually receives even

practice test

From a short story first published in 1891, “The Yellow Wallpaper,” by Charlotte Perkins Gilman.

and there are rings and things in the walls. The paint and paper look as if a boys’ school had used it. It is stripped off—the paper—in great patches all around the head of my bed, about as far as I can reach, and in a great place on the other side of the room low down. I never saw a worse paper in my life. One of those sprawling flamboyant patterns committing every artistic sin. It is dull enough to confuse the eye in following, pronounced enough to constantly irritate and provoke study, and when you follow the lame uncertain curves for a little distance they suddenly commit suicide—plunge off at outrageous angles, destroy themselves in unheard of contradictions. The color is repellent, almost revolting; a smoldering unclean yellow, strangely faded by the slow-turning sunlight. It is a dull yet lurid orange in some places, a sickly sulfur tint in others. No wonder the children hated it! I should hate it myself if I had to live in this room long.

..........................................................................................

Passage 1

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

220

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

55

the sternest natural images of the desolate or terrible. I looked upon the scene before me . . . with an utter depression of soul which I can compare to no earthly sensation more properly than to the after-dream of the reveler upon opium—the bitter lapse into everyday life—the hideous dropping off of the veil. . . . Nevertheless, in this mansion of gloom I now proposed to myself a sojourn of some weeks. Its proprietor, Roderick Usher, had been one of my boon companions in boyhood; but many years had elapsed since our last meeting. A letter, however, had lately reached me in a distant part of the country—a letter from him—which, in its wildly importunate nature, had admitted of no other than a personal reply. The MS gave evidence of nervous agitation. The writer spoke of acute bodily illness—of a mental disorder which oppressed him—and of an earnest desire to see me, as his best, and indeed his only personal friend, with a view of attempting, by the cheerfulness of my society, some alleviation of his malady. . . . A servant in waiting took my horse, and I entered the Gothic archway of the hall. A valet, of stealthy step, thence conducted me, in silence, through many dark and intricate passages in my progress to the studio of his master. Much that I encountered on the way contributed, I know not how, to heighten the vague sentiments of which I have already spoken.

www.petersons.com

16. Which of the following occurs as the narrator is describing the nursery room in Passage 1? (A) The narrator begins to realize she really is ill. (B) The narrator resigns herself to staying in the nursery room. (C) The narrator grows more terrified. (D) The narrator’s impression shifts from negative to positive. (E) The narrator’s impression shifts from positive to negative. 17. Which of the following can be inferred from Passage 1? (A) In reality, the narrator is not mentally disturbed at all. (B) The narrator’s husband understands and wants to help her. (C) The narrator’s husband has seriously misjudged the severity of the narrator’s illness. (D) The house that the narrator and her husband occupy is haunted by the narrator’s ancestors. (E) The nursery room was previously occupied by the narrator’s own children. 18. What is the most likely reason the narrator says the nursery room appears “as if a boys’ school had used it”? (A) The nursery windows are barred. (B) The paper on the nursery walls has been stripped off. (C) There are rings in the nursery walls. (D) The nursery walls are a sickly color. (E) The nursery used to be a playroom and gymnasium.

Practice Test 2

221

.................................................................

20. To whom or what does the phrase “commit suicide” refer in line 65? (A) The colors in the wallpaper (B) The pattern of the wallpaper (C) The previous inhabitant of the room (D) The narrator in her own imagination (E) The narrator’s brother 21. What does the narrator of Passage 2 mean by the word “insufferable” in line 12? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Maddening Unrelieved Insupportable Immeasurable Revolting

22. In Passage 2, to what does the phrase “the hideous dropping off of the veil” (lines 24–25) refer? (A) The unwholesome aspect of the house (B) The narrator’s self-loathing (C) A return to reality after a drugged state (D) Repulsive memories from the narrator’s past (E) The narrator’s sudden terror

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Temporary stay Journey Dalliance Expedition Appointment

24. In the context of Passage 2, use of the phrase “wildly importunate” (line 35) indicates that, in his letter to the narrator, Roderick Usher (A) demanded that the narrator visit him. (B) pleaded with the narrator to visit him. (C) requested that the narrator visit him. (D) invited the narrator to visit him. (E) suggested that the narrator visit him. 25. In the context of the passage, what is the most likely meaning of the phrase “vague sentiments” in line 54? (A) The welcome that Usher gives the narrator when the narrator arrived at his study (B) The boyhood friendship that the narrator and Usher shared (C) The feeling of gloom and depression that the narrator has felt throughout the passage (D) The cheerfulness of the narrator in contrast to Usher’s gloominess (E) The feeling the narrator has toward Usher’s servant and valet 26. A main difference between the first sentence of Passage 1 and that of Passage 2 is in the (A) point of view (first, second, third person). (B) sex of the narrator. (C) age of the narrator. (D) social class of the narrator. (E) tone it seems to set.

practice test

(A) She believes it was chosen with her in mind. (B) She has been obsessively studying it. (C) She blames John for making her look at it. (D) She has begun, in a sick sort of way, to like it. (E) It reminds her of something in her past.

23. What is the meaning of the word “sojourn” in line 28 of Passage 2?

..........................................................................................

19. What can we conclude from the narrator’s description of the wallpaper in lines 52–73?

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

222

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

27. Which of the following is an important similarity between the narrators of the two passages? (A) Their state of health (B) The effect that the stories’ settings have on them (C) The effect that the seasons have on them (D) Their marital state (E) Their relationship with the other characters

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 2

223

.................................................................

This section is made up of two types of questions, multiple choice—10 questions—and Student-Produced Response—10 questions. You have 25 minutes to complete the section. You may use available space on the page for scratchwork. Notes: 1. You may use a calculator. All of the numbers used are real numbers.

Reference Information

2. You may use the figures that accompany the problems to help you find the solution. Unless the instructions say that a figure is not drawn to scale, assume that it has been drawn accurately. Each figure lies in a plane unless the instructions say otherwise.

r

w

A 5 pr2 C 5 2pr

h w

h b

r

h b

c a

2x

60

x s

2s

45

30

45

3x

s

1

bh V 5 ,wh V 5 pr2h c2 5 a2 1 b2 Special Right Triangles 2 The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180. A 5 ,w

A5

1. Which linear equation most accurately models the scatter plot diagram shown?

2. What is the absolute value of the difference between y2 1 0.15 and y3, given y 5 3? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

217.85 17.85 9.15 20.15 0.15

3. Find the product of x and y, given x 5 23 1 32 and y 5 33 1 22.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

y y y y y

5 5 5 5 5

7x 1 1 0.7x 1 1 0.25x 1 5 1.4x 1 .5 22x 1 1

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1225 527 289 35 17

practice test

20 QUESTIONS • 25 INUTES

..........................................................................................

SECTION 4

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

224

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

4. Given 3c 2 4 , 17 which of the following is NOT a possible value of c? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

7 6 0 27 217

5. Find x when y 5 1, given (A) (B)

1

x y

2 7 5 5.

12 1

8. A year ago, Tom and Al each deposited $1,000 in separate investment accounts. Tom’s account earns 5% every year. Al’s account earns 2.5% every six months. What is the difference between Tom’s and Al’s accounts today? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$0 $0.63 $25.63 $25 $50

9. In the figure below, P is the center of a circle with area 9p, points Q and R lie on the circle, and angle a is 45°. What is the length of QR?

7

(C) 12 (D) 2 (E) 0 3

6. Given 2=x 2 12 5 26, find x. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

P

36 27 18 9 3

7. Given the following diagram with sides x, find b.

x

x

R (A) 3=2 (B) 3 (C) 9=2 (D) 9 (E) 18

x (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

15° 30° 60° 75° 90°

www.petersons.com

Q

1

10. Given f(x) 5

~196!2 2 x 1

x3 1 1 for x 5 8. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

168 7.33 3 2 1.33

, evaluate f

Practice Test 2

225

.................................................................

-

practice test

10

..........................................................................................

QUESTIONS 11–20 REQUIRE YOU TO SOLVE THE PROBLEMS, THEN ENTER YOUR ANSWERS BY MARKING OVALS IN THE SPECIAL GRID, AS SHOWN IN THE EXAMPLES BELOW.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

226

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

11. What area remains when the area of a square with side 3 is subtracted from the area of a circle with radius 2?

14. In the figure below, if AB 5

1

BC, 2 then what is the y-coordinate of point B?

y

12. In the following diagram, find the area of the triangle formed by dropping a perpendicular line from AB to Point C, given x 5 4. Note that AB and DC are parallel.

A

(x, y)

B x Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

D

C 15. How many of the first 100 positive integers contain the digit 7?

13. In the simple addition problem below, A and B are digits. What must A be? 0. AB 10.BA 0.BB

www.petersons.com

16. In the figure below, what is the value of a?

Practice Test 2

227

.................................................................

the value of

5 8 A B 13

1 4 A C 13

23

19

a! . What is b!

~3 ¹ 4! ? 2

19. Given x 5 .25, what is the length of AC in the figure below?

7x

A

STOP

5x

B

C

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. www.petersons.com

practice test

18. Let a ¹ b be defined as

20. In the following addition problems, what is the value of C 2 B?

..........................................................................................

17. In order to make enough brownies to serve 1 dozen people, a recipe calls 1 for ounce of cocoa. Using this 4 recipe, how many ounces of cocoa would it take to make enough brownies for 36 people?

228

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 5 39 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES For each question below, select the best answer from the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Directions: The following questions will test your knowledge of grammar, usage, diction, and idiom. Some sentences are correct. No sentence contains multiple errors. In each sentence below, five elements, labeled (A) through (E), are underlined and lettered. One (and ONLY one) of the underlined elements may contain an error. In choosing your answer, be sure to follow the rules of standard written English. You can assume that the parts of the sentences not underlined are correct. If the sentence has no error, choose Þ E , “No error.” O Example: My dog Sally and my cat Buster gets along well with each other, eating A B and sleeping together, playing quietly, C and sharing their food and treats. D No error. E Sample Answer: B Þ C Þ D Þ E Þ Þ O O O O

1. That Saturday, there was an eclipse, A so we punch tiny holes B in cardboard, so we could C view it directly. No error. D E 2. Looking out over the vast concert hall, A Roger’s stomach began A to churn with anxiety, because B he knew there were talent scouts C in the audience. No error. D E

www.petersons.com

3. In accordance to the bylaws A of the Condo Association, Ralph B Beekerman is to remove those plastic C ducks from his front yard immediD ately. No error. E 4. When they were small, Winthrop and A Nigel Holmes dreamed of emulating B their famous Uncle Sherlock and C becoming a detective. No error. D E

Practice Test 2

229

.................................................................

won Best in Show at the A Westminster, the B American Kennel Club accused him B C of forging his pedigree. No error. D E

11. When my brother and I were teenagers, A my favorite sports were football, baseball, and soccer, B whereas his were craps, poker, and C he also liked pitching pennies. D No error. E 12. If one studies Shakespeare, you will A B learn as much about human relationC ships as about poetry. No error. D E

7. Although Ernest Hemingway identiA fied with traditional strongmen types, B bullfighters, big game hunters, and C deep-sea fishermen, he died C alone, a suicide. No error. D E

13. Besides being an Academy AwardA winning film, Rain Man is an B excellent study of autism, C starring Dustin Hoffman D and Tom Cruise. No error. D E

8. The price of kumquats A is less than kiwi fruit, so we shall B C have kumquats for dessert. No error. D E

14. My mother’s diaries, written in the A 1920s, are particularly interesting B documents, since she worked C as a fan dancer at that time. D No error. E

9. Keep your skin soft with Tawny Body Wash, now containing a special A hydrating formula that will keep you B looking refreshed and vibrant, no C matter how hectic your day! D No error. E 10. The tables and chairs has been set A out and are ready for the guests, so B C we have nothing else to do until the party begins. No error. D E

15. Consumer Reports, published by an A independent, nonprofit organization, B was the best guide consumers have C today for finding quality merchanD dise. No error. E

practice test

6. When Roy’s dog “Spike”

..........................................................................................

5. We were sitting in the park, my A friend Kameko and me, when I B suddenly see a white squirrel C dash up a juniper tree. No error. D E

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

230

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

16. The genetic code consists of the A instructions present in living cells that specify and control the synthesis B of polypeptides and proteins C from amino acids. No error. D E 17. Because it’s Grandpa’s favorite dish, A we were planning to have corned beef B for supper tonight, but we C haven’t got no pot to cook it in. D No error. E

www.petersons.com

18. In the past, when neurosurgeons had A only low-resolution microscopes to work with, the surgery did on the B C human brain was more risky than it is today. No error. D E 19. Because he was absolutely fearless, A Chucky was unanimously voted B C leader to the whole gang. No error. D E

Practice Test 2

231

.................................................................

Choose the answer that best expresses the meaning of the original sentence. If in your opinion the original sentence is the best option, choose it. Your choice should produce the most effective sentence. Example: I am going to the store to buy a food item, which is bread. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

buy buy buy buy buy

a food item, which is bread a food item, bread bread a food item, which is called bread what is called bread

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ Þ D Þ E Þ O O O O

20. In point of fact, the book Being and Nothingness, written by author Jean-Paul Sartre in 1943, made the philosophy of Existentialism a popular one all over the world. (A) In point of fact, the book Being and Nothingness, written by author Jean-Paul Sartre in 1943, made the philosophy of Existentialism a popular one all over the world. (B) In point of fact, the book Being and Nothingness, written by author Jean-Paul Sartre in 1943, made Existentialism a popular philosophy all over the world. (C) The book Being and Nothingness, written by Jean-Paul Sartre in 1943, made Existentialism popular.

(D) The book Being and Nothingness, written by Jean-Paul Sartre in 1943, made the philosophy of Existentialism popular all over the world. (E) Being and Nothingness, written by Jean-Paul Sartre, made Existentialism a popular philosophy all over the world. 21. While running the Boston marathon, a faint feeling suddenly came over me. (A) marathon, a faint feeling suddenly came over me (B) marathon, over me came a faint feeling suddenly (C) marathon, it caused a faint feeling (D) marathon, I suddenly felt faint (E) marathon, feeling suddenly faint

practice test

Each of the following sentences is either underlined or contains an underlined part. Under each sentence, there are five ways of phrasing the underlined portion. Choice (A) repeats the original; the other four options are different. You can assume that the elements that are not underlined are correct.

..........................................................................................

Directions: The sentences below test correctness and effectiveness of expression. When you choose your answers, select the sentence or sentence part that is most clear and correct and that conforms best to the requirements of standard written English.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

232

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

22. Too many instructions were given to me by the Head Waiter at once, and I became confused and dropped the bowl of stew in the customer’s lap. (A) Too many instructions were given to me by the Head Waiter at once (B) I was given, by the Head Waiter, too many instructions at once (C) The Head Waiter gave me too many instructions at once (D) Too many instructions, by the Head Waiter, were given to me (E) Instructions were given to me by the Head Waiter, but too many at once 23. Albert Einstein was admired as a scientist throughout the world, but a recent biography suggests that he was unkind to his first wife. (A) world, but a recent biography suggests that he was unkind to his first wife. (B) world, but it is suggested by a recent biography that he was unkind to his first wife. (C) world, but unkindness to his first wife is suggested by a recent biography. (D) but was unkind to his first wife, as suggested by a recent biography. (E) but, as suggested by a recent biography, unkind he was to his first wife.

www.petersons.com

24. Verbal phone contact could not be obtained with Mr. Schuler by me, and so I proceeded to his domicile. (A) Verbal phone contact could not be obtained with Mr. Schuler by me, and so I proceeded to his domicile. (B) I could not reach Mr. Schuler by phone, so I went to his home. (C) I could not make verbal contact with Mr. Schuler by phone, so I advanced to his place of residence. (D) Verbal phone contact with Mr. Schuler could not be made by me, so I proceeded to his home. (E) Phone contact could not verbally be made by me with Mr. Schuler by phone, so I advanced to his domicile. 25. Mr. Pritchard, our trusted bookkeeper and friend of many years, embezzled funds from the supplies account and therefore was busted. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

was busted was arrested underwent arrestment was picked up by the cops was detained by the local constable

26. My husband, seeing as how he is an assertive person, requested that we be seated by the window, and the maitre d’ complied. (A) husband, seeing as how he is an assertive person (B) husband, being an assertive person (C) husband, for sure an assertive person (D) husband, assertive to the max (E) husband, a person who is constantly being assertive

Practice Test 2

233

.................................................................

28. The Komodo dragon, a huge monitor lizard, is native to Indonesia. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

native native native native native

to by for with in

29. When I was a block from home, my faithful dog Arno coming to meet me, wagging his tail. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

coming to meet me comes to meet me is coming to meet me came to meet me come and met me

30. If you sing as well tonight as you did this afternoon, you should win the award. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

you should win the award you have won the award you will have won the award you won the award you should be winning the award

(A) the existence of a collaborative effort (B) the effort that exists is a collaborative one on both sides (C) that collaboration is truly the name of the game (D) that collaboration is the dynamic that is in true existence (E) that a collaborative effort is part and parcel of the whole endeavor 32. Why would Uncle Wilhelm change his will when we were so attentive on him? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

attentive attentive attentive attentive attentive

on him to him by him for him with him

33. We love scary movies, perhaps because it gives us the opportunity to experience the thrill of danger while remaining safe. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

it gives us they give us we are given of their giving of its giving

practice test

(A) as handsome, maybe more handsome than Tiffany’s (B) as handsome as, maybe more handsome than, Tiffany’s (C) way handsome as Tiffany’s, maybe even more so (D) as handsome over Tiffany’s, maybe more handsome (E) as handsome, maybe handsomer, than Tiffany’s

31. Treating antisocial patients is particularly difficult, because the therapist cannot assume the existence of a collaborative effort.

..........................................................................................

27. My boyfriend is as handsome, maybe more handsome than Tiffany’s.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

234

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Directions: The following passage is from an essay in its early stages. Some of it may need revision. Read the passage below and answer the questions that come after it. Some of the questions will ask you to improve sentence structure and word choice. Other questions will refer to parts of the essay or to the entire essay and ask you to improve organization and development. Base your decisions on the rules of standard written English, and mark your answer in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

QUESTIONS 34–39 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. The following passage is an early draft of an essay about the author’s mother. Some parts of the passage need to be revised.

(1) The meals my mom prepared when I was a child would be a present-day dietitian’s nightmare, although I didn’t know it then. (2) When I was very small, for breakfast we’d have lumpy oatmeal with lots of sugar, or eggs fried in butter, with sausage on the side; for lunch, salami sandwiches with mayonnaise and an iceberg lettuce salad; for dinner, more iceberg (or maybe Jell-O), canned vegetables, round steak rolled in flour and fried within an inch of its life, and store-bought pie with whipped cream for dessert. (3) Other kids liked to come to our house for a sugar fix! (4) Later on, when I was a teenager and frozen provender became available my mom took to it with perfervidity. (5) She gloried in Banquet TV dinners, frozen pot pies, Sara Lee cheesecake that you just had to defrost and dig into. (6) Oh, I’ll eat bran muffins and sprouts and soy sandwiches. (7) In the dark of night, worrying about my cholesterol, I realize they’re good for me. (8) In fact, given my childhood eating habits, I’m surprised I’ve lived this long! (9) But before you start feeling sorry for me, thinking I must have been a neglected child, you should know that I still like that kind of food best. (10) But I still prefer Wonder Bread to the 6-Grain Sour Dough you buy in the health food store, and I’ll still take Mrs. Smith’s frozen apple pie with Cool Whip before low-fat yogurt for dessert. www.petersons.com

(11) So Mom wasn’t Suzy Homemaker, or a fiber-gram-counter type, so what? (12) It didn’t mean she was neglectful or lazy. (13) Mealtime was the only time she allowed herself to stop working and sit down. (14) Born in the early 1900s to a stoic, Calvinistic family, she grew up laboring on a farm from dawn to dusk. (15) That couldn’t have been any fun—and she liked to have fun. (16) Sometimes I think she must have been a changeling, left on her somber parents’ doorstep by mistake. (17) Basically she liked leisure and things of the flesh, although she rarely gave in to them. (18) She may not have liked to cook. (19) She did like to eat. (20) Mealtime was festive at our house. (21) We never discussed serious topics at dinner, or bickered and argued at the table like some families do. (22) We were too busy talking about how good the food was and asking for seconds! 34. Sentence 9 would make more sense if it were (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

placed before sentence placed before sentence placed before sentence placed before sentence deleted altogether.

6. 7. 8. 11.

35. Which of the choices is the best revision of the underlined portion of sentence 4 below? Later on, when I was a teenager and frozen provender became available my mom took to it with perfervidity. (A) food that was frozen, which you simply popped into the oven, my mom was only too happy to give over cooking altogether (B) frozen chow became available my mom took to it with a blithe spirit (C) frozen foods became available my mom took to them with zeal (D) frozen victuals became available my mom took to them with a good inclination (E) frozen fare came along my mom became happy

Practice Test 2

235

.................................................................

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

lazy. lazy. lazy. lazy. lazy.

Meanwhile, mealtime On the contrary, mealtime In addition, mealtime Nevertheless, mealtime Likewise, mealtime

37. In the context of the passage, which of the following topics would most logically be addressed between sentences 15 and 16? (A) A short list of chores the author’s mother had to do on the farm (B) A description of the physical appearance of the author’s mother’s parents (C) A short list of things the author’s mother liked to do to have fun (D) An analysis of the social pressures that caused the author’s mother to believe she had to work so hard (E) A physical description of the author

STOP

She may not have liked to cook. She did like to eat. Mealtime was festive at our house. (A) cook, and she did like to eat, for mealtime (B) cook, but she did like to eat, so mealtime (C) cook, and she did like to eat, but mealtime (D) cook, and she did like to eat, and mealtime (E) cook, but she did like to eat, yet mealtime 39. Deletion of which of the following sentences would improve the unity of the first paragraph? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Sentence Sentence Sentence Sentence Sentence

1 2 3 4 5

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. www.petersons.com

practice test

It didn’t mean she was neglectful or lazy. Mealtime was the only time she allowed herself to stop working and sit down.

38. Which of the following is the smoothest and most logical way to revise and combine the underlined portions of sentences 18, 19, and 20 reproduced below?

..........................................................................................

36. Which of the following would make the best replacement for the underlined phrase, as a transition between sentences 12 and 13?

236

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS Section 1 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

B D E A B

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

D C B B B

11. D 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. E

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

B D E B D

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

A C A C D

1. The correct answer is (B). The word while indicates that the sentence contains contrasting elements. To find the answer, you must know what the word orthodoxy means, and that, chances are, a person who is orthodox believes that faith is more important than reason. 2. The correct answer is (D). None of the other choices indicate a love of car rides. In fact, you might be able to make the right choice simply by ruling out the wrong ones. But if you have a vocabulary wide enough to encompass the word alacrity, which means cheerful willingness or eagerness, you’re ahead of the game. 3. The correct answer is (E). Again, the word while points to a contrast, so you should look for opposites among the answers. Only choices (B) and (E) meet this requirement. Choice (B) is wrong, because a person who is depressed does not necessarily object to what another person wants. A person who is contentious frequently will. 4. The correct answer is (A). The word because, as you know, points to a cause-and-effect element in the sentence. Reading closely, you can be pretty sure from the context—and probably from having heard the phrase used this way before—that half the human race means women, and that therefore rich brain power also refers to women. Now what is it about someone with rich brain power that would cause concern? Choice (B) can be ruled out immediately, followed by choice (D) (audacity might actually help a woman by making her more assertive), so choices (A), (C), and (E) are left. Now move on to the next word. Read closely again, and you’ll see that choices (C) and (E) make no sense. 5. The correct answer is (B). This is a definition sentence. Ask which choice most clearly indicates a willingness to please without hope of reward. If your vocabulary encompasses the word altruistic, the answer is clear. 6. The correct answer is (D). The treaty does not ban most underground testing. The other choices are not reflected in the passage. 7. The correct answer is (C). The treaty states that a common goal is an end to the contamination of . . . radioactive substances in the human environment. Choice (B) is incorrect because the treaty allows for underground tests of nuclear weapons, suggesting that the prevention of detonations is not the main purpose of the treaty. The other choices are not supported by the passage.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 2

237

.................................................................

10. The correct answer is (B). The passage states that the questions became important when the arts became available to the masses as never before (lines 14–15). The other choices may be true but are not stated in the passage as a main reason. 11. The correct answer is (D). The word afoul implies conflict. There is no evidence in the passage for the other choices. 12. The correct answer is (A). Metaphysics deals with problems of ultimate reality and the structure of the universe. The passage talks mainly about how, in Singer’s stories, the supernatural and the ordinary are inextricably fused. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are not mentioned. The supernatural is discussed, but this is not the same thing as superstition, choice (E), which is not mentioned in the passage. 13. The correct answer is (A). The statement immediately follows the assertion that in Singer’s stories, dualities are . . . embedded in one another.

15. The correct answer is (E). Throughout the paragraph, the author discusses opposites: past and present, animate and inanimate, the supernatural and the ordinary world of the senses, even life and death (lines 2–5). 16. The correct answer is (B). Immediately following the description of the three types of stories, the passage states that the stories vary widely, yet under the surface there are striking similarities. Choices (A) and (E) are not reflected in the passage. Choice (C) is true, but it is a narrower choice than choice (B) and thus not as good. (Remember that in these questions, you are asked to pick the best or most likely answer, rather than just a possible one.) Choice (D) is incorrect because Singer’s stories, as described in the passage, are mostly about Jews.

www.petersons.com

practice test 2

14. The correct answer is (C). Lines 14–16 define the term phenomena by saying: . . . that plane is the world of matter, the world of phenomena. When working on critical reading passages, be sure to look closely at the sentences immediately surrounding the designated lines. It’s not an invariable rule that they will be related to the answer, but they’re a good place to start.

answers

9. The correct answer is (B). Choice (A) is wrong because the e-mail says only that if an order is issued, Web site owners may have to pay back money. Choice (D) is wrong because, although the e-mail says that without . . . scientific evidence owners must discontinue the claims, it does not order them to find it. Choices (C) and (E) are not supported by the passage.

..........................................................................................

8. The correct answer is (B). The FTC e-mail threatens the Web site owner with legal action for noncompliance, so it is not merely advice, opinion, or reminder—choices (A), (C), or (E). Choice (D) does not make sense in the context of the passage.

238

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

17. The correct answer is (D). Immediately preceding discussion of “The Slaughterer” in lines 123–124, the passage states that Everywhere in [Singer’s stories], the reader finds opposites, contraries, ambiguities. Choices (A), (C), and (E) are not mentioned in the passage. Choice (B) is not mentioned in connection with this particular story. 18. The correct answer is (E). In “Shiddah and Kuziba,” the home of two demons is threatened by a drill operated by humans above them. Choices (B) and (C) are mentioned in the passage but not in particular connection with this story, so choice (E) is still the best choice. Choice (D) is contradicted in the passage—in Singer’s stories, demons actually seem to occupy the physical world. 19. The correct answer is (B). The passage calls the story somewhat of an exception, since the narrator is a rooster. Choice (D) is not mentioned. The remaining choices are shared by many of Singer’s other stories. 20. The correct answer is (D). The final paragraph quotes critic Irving Howe, who maintains that Singer’s stories leave one unsettled and anxious. 21. The correct answer is (A). It encompasses all the points in the passage, from the dangers of methyl bromide to the reason why it is still being used. Choices (C) and (E) are not mentioned in the passage (though they might be inferred). The other choices are too narrow to be the main idea. 22. The correct answer is (C). Choices (B) and (E) do not describe a site (or location). Although toxicity might be high at choices (A) and (D), it makes most sense that the toxicity would be highest at the place where the pesticide is actually added to the soil. 23. The correct answer is (A). Knowing the names of such corporations and organizations could fuel readers to write letters to them. Choices (B) and (D) are not so relevant as choice (A) to the dangers of methyl bromide, and choices (C) and (E) might actually make stronger the argument in favor of the pesticide. 24. The correct answer is (C). Statistics are widely used tools for backing up claims. There is no evidence in the passage that the author is trying to reassure or distract the reader, choices (A) and (B), or that the author is concerned with an academic audience, choice (D). Although choice (E) is a possible inference, it is not explicitly stated and is not the main thrust of the author’s overall argument. 25. The correct answer is (D). The term non-target organism is followed immediately by a discussion of the effects of exposure on the human body. Choices (A) and (C) are probably based on fact but are not mentioned in the passage. Choice (B) is incorrect, because soil is not an organism. Choice (E) makes no sense.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 2

239

.................................................................

D B E C

5. 6. 7. 8.

A E B B

1. The correct answer is (D). If Area 5

SD 3

2

9. D 10. B 11. A 12. E 2 3

13. 14. 15. 16.

D C C A

17. 18. 19. 20.

E D A B

Area 5 6, then the

~6! 5 9 square inches.

2. The correct answer is (B). If 9x 1 5 5 23, 9x 5 18, or x 5 2. Thus, 18x 1 5 5 36 1 5 5 41. 3. The correct answer is (E). An easy way to solve this problem is by noticing that the angled side forms a line transecting two parallel lines. The 60° angle equals the angle supplementary to a. Therefore 60° 1 a 5 180° or a 5 120°.

New Price 5 5 1 15% of 5 5 5 1 ~.15!~5! 5 5 1 .75 5 5.75 5. The correct answer is (A). First, find the common denominator, which is 12, then 1 combine terms, and finally invert the answer to get . Remember, the question asks for x 1 , NOT x! x 1 1 1 1 x5 2 1 2 3 4 2 6 4 3 6 2 2 1 2 5 12 12 12 12 5 5 12 Now, invert your answer: 1 x

5

12 5

www.petersons.com

practice test 2

4. The correct answer is (C). To solve this one, just add 15% of the original ticket price to the original ticket price.

answers

1. 2. 3. 4.

..........................................................................................

Section 2

240

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

6. The correct answer is (E). (x 1 y) 2 (x 2 y) 5 x 1 y 2 x 1 y 5 2y 7. The correct answer is (B). Translate the words into an equation and solve for x. “40 percent of 50 is four times what number?” becomes: ~.40!~50! 5 4x 20 5 4x 20 x5 4 x55 8. The correct answer is (B). If marked price 5 m, first sale price 5 .85m and net price 5 .90 (.85)m 5 .765m. .765m 5 306 m 5 400 Or work from the answer choices: 15% of $400 5 $60, making a first sale price of $340. 10% of this price is $34, making the net price $306. 9. The correct answer is (D). Did you recognize the triangle as a 45° - 45° - 90° triangle, which has sides in the ratio of 1:1: =2? You can plug the values given into this ratio. 1:1:=2 becomes (1)(=2):(1)(=2):(=2)(=2), which makes x 5 ~=2!~=2! 5 2. You can also solve this using the Pythagorean Theorem, which is a2 1 b2 5 c2.

=22 1 =22 5 x2 2 1 2 5 x2 4 5 x2 x52 10. The correct answer is (B). Square both sides of the equation to get x2 5 3 2 y x2 2 3 5 2y y 5 3 2 x2 11. The correct answer is (A). Just multiply out the factors to get the answer to this problem. Did you notice that (y 1 3)(3 1 y) can also be stated as (y 1 3)2? ~y 1 3!~ 3 1 y! 5 3y 1 9 1 3y 1 y2 5 y2 1 6y 1 9 12. The correct answer is (E). The formula for the area of a square is A 5 s2, so s 5 =36 5 6. The formula for the perimeter is P 5 4s, which means the perimeter of the square is P 5 (4)(6) 5 24.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 2

241

.................................................................

8 hrs each day on Mon., Tues., and Fri.5 ~8!~3! 5 24 hrs 6 hrs each day on Wed. and Thurs. 5 ~6!~2! 5 12 hrs Total hours worked 5 36 hrs This week the helper earned ~$9/hr!~36 hrs! 5 $324 15. The correct answer is (C). We can solve this problem in two steps. First, find the radius of the circle. Since it is given that the area of the circle is 9p, we have:

Second, we must find the length of a side of the square in order to find its area. We 1 know that the radius of a circle is of the diameter of a circle. In this case, the diam2 eter, d, of the circle is also the length of a side, s, of the square. Thus, d 5 2r 5 (2)(3) 5 s 5 6. Now it is a simple matter to calculate the area using the formula for the area of a square:

r=3

s=6 A 5 s2 5 62 5 36 in2

www.petersons.com

practice test 2

A 5 9p 5 pr2 9p r2 5 p r2 5 9 r53

answers

14. The correct answer is (C). The helper’s hours are:

..........................................................................................

13. The correct answer is (D). It could be a good idea to use your calculator here. Renaming the inequality from fractions to decimals will make comparison easier and reduce the chances of error. The inequality thus becomes .800 , x , .875. Now, you can 6 immediately rule out the first two because choice (A), , is obviously much greater than 4 7 2 4 , and choice (B), , is much less than . Here is where it pays to have memorized the 8 3 5 most common fractional equivalents in decimals. The last three choices are best tackled with your calculator. After renaming them as decimals, it is easy to spot choice (D), 25 or .833, as the answer. 30

242

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

16. The correct answer is (A). The only information relevant to the solution of this problem is that the volume of the cube is 64 cubic inches. The other information is given as a logical distraction. To solve this one, just use the formula for the volume of a cube: V 5 s3 64 5 s3 3 s 5 =64 s54 17. The correct answer is (E). You can get the answer to this one by first solving for y in the second expression; then plug the first expression into the second to get the answer. ay 5 b 2 3 ~b 2 3! y5 a k Now replace b in the expression above with : x k 23 x y5 a

S D

1

of the 8 circumference, the circumference must be 8p. Now, it is easy to find the diameter, d, using the formula for the circumference of a circle.

18. The correct answer is (D). Since the length of the arc is p, and this length is

C 5 2pr 5 pd 8p 5 pd 8p d5 p d58 19. The correct answer is (A). You can think of this one as a problem that calculates a percentage of the percentage. To get the answer, you don’t even need to know the total 6 1 is, and you’re all set. number of students at Boulder High, just figure out what of 3 10 6 1 First, rename as .6 and as .33, then translate the words into an equation: 3 10 Percent of students who drive their cars to school 5 ~.33!~.6! ' .198, about 20% 20. The correct answer is (B). The least value for the expression is when the denominator is the greatest. This occurs when b is greatest, 8, and a is least, 0. This means that, within the constraints of the inequality, the least possible value for the 16 given expression is , or 2. 8

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 2

243

.................................................................

B D A C E A

7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

B A E D B A

13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

E A B E C

18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

B B B B C

23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

A B C E B

1. The correct answer is (B). Living organisms are, by definition, independent and self-regulating. Choice (A) makes little sense, seeming to apply to a person who has the power of decision-making. Choices (C) and (D) run counter to the idea of life, since both indicate a lack of vitality. Choice (E) means “destructive.” 2. The correct answer is (D). This is a definition sentence. Neither choice (A) nor choice (B) makes sense. Choices (C) and (E) are illogical, given the meaning of the rest of the sentence. 3. The correct answer is (A). To make the right choice here, you must be able to define the words, of course, and in the case of choice (A), that demands a fairly big vocabulary. (Look the two words up now—they’re the kind of words you’re likely to run into on the PSAT/NMSQT.) In the rest of the choices, at least one word runs counter to the meaning of the original statement.

5. The correct answer is (E). To immerse oneself is to lose oneself, and a movie is an illusion. Look up the other words, and you’ll find that one or the other of them makes no sense in the context of the sentence. 6. The correct answer is (A). In the fall, indicates that it is not yet winter, so the best answer is premonition, which means forewarning. 7. The correct answer is (B). Ask yourself, What kind of action, in regard to money, would get one fired? Stealing or embezzling will probably be the first words that spring to mind. Now look for a synonym of one of these words. Again, your vocabulary must be large enough to contain the word pilfered. 8. The correct answer is (A). Look up the other words and you’ll find one or the other of them runs counter to the overall meaning of the sentence. 9. The correct answer is (E). Utopian citizens are said to worship in various ways, which rules out choice (A). The passage does not suggest that emotions run high in Utopia, ruling out choice (B). The passage speaks of the “greater and wiser” citizens of Utopia, so choices (C) and (D) are ruled out.

www.petersons.com

practice test 2

4. The correct answer is (C). To be gregarious is to be sociable. Except for choice (E), the other choices denote unpleasant traits. Choice (E) is wrong, because to be reticent is to be hesitant or reserved.

answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

..........................................................................................

Section 3

244

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

10. The correct answer is (D). The passage expresses only positive opinions, with no evidence of insincerity, ruling out choices (A), (C), and (E). The voice never rises to the elevated level of awe, ruling out choice (B). 11. The correct answer is (B). Choice (C) is contradicted by the passage, when Clinton says This [withholding information] is not a propensity that is confined to one party or the other. Choices (A), (D), and (E) are not supported by the passage. 12. The correct answer is (A). Although choice (C) is mentioned in the text, Clinton says security may be used as a pretext for withholding information—not that security comes with information. Choices (B), (D), and (E) may be true, but they are not implied by the passage. 13. The correct answer is (E). The other choices do not make sense in the context of the passage. 14. The correct answer is (A). It would not make sense to say that the cyclotron was effective despite appearing sophisticated, technical, or ingenious—choices (B), (C), and (D). Choice (E) is incorrect because the device is described in a way that makes it seem outlandish in appearance, and therefore conspicuous. 15. The correct answer is (B). The passage says that whirling atoms and then casting them at a target is an effective way to smash open atomic nuclei. The other choices are not reflected in the passage. 16. The correct answer is (E). The initial description of the nursery room is that It is a big, airy room, the whole floor nearly, with windows that look all ways, and air and sunshine galore. The final description is that the room’s color is dull yet lurid orange in some places, a sickly sulfur tint in others. The narrator believes she is ill from the opening of the passage, so choice (A) is wrong. During the description, she seems neither resigned, choice (B), nor terrified, choice (C). 17. The correct answer is (C). The narrator’s tone is obsessive throughout; her inordinate fascination with the wallpaper hints at mental illness, yet, as she tells us, John does not believe she is ill. This refutes choice (A). Regarding choice (B), the narrator’s husband MAY really want to help her, but the content of the passage shows that he does not understand her. Choices (D) and (E) are not in the passage. 18. The correct answer is (B). The narrator says that The paint and paper . . . is stripped off—the paper—in great patches. This kind of destruction would require strength that only older children would have. In context, the other choices do not indicate anything about the age of the children who used to occupy the room.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 2

245

.................................................................

21. The correct answer is (B). In lines 13–14, the narrator says, I say insufferable; for the feeling was unrelieved. . . . Again, a good (though not infallible) tactic in answering these questions is to first go to the lines cited and read the words immediately surrounding them. 22. The correct answer is (C). Immediately preceding the phrase, the author has said that he has a sensation like the after-dream of the reveler upon opium—the bitter lapse into everyday life. 23. The correct answer is (A). A sojourn is a limited visit or temporary stay. Even if you do not know the word, the context will give you a clue. 24. The correct answer is (B). The description of the letter is followed by the sentence The MS gave evidence of nervous agitation and suggests that Roderick needed a visit from the narrator, which logically suggests that the letter had a pleading tone.

26. The correct answer is (E). Passage 1 begins with a rather pleased tone; the opening of Passage 2 is decidedly gloomy. Choice (A) is incorrect, because both passages are told from the first-person point of view. Neither the sex, age, nor social class of the narrators is given in the first sentence, which rules out the remaining choices. 27. The correct answer is (B). Both stories strongly emphasize the effect of setting on the narrator (even the titles reflect the settings). We cannot know either the state of health or the marital status of the second narrator, ruling out choices (A) and (D). We cannot know the effect of the season on the first narrator, choice (C). In Passage 1, the narrator is married to the other main character, and in Passage 2, the narrator and the other main character are just friends, ruling out choice (E).

www.petersons.com

practice test 2

25. The correct answer is (C). Mention of the Gothic archway of the hall; the valet, of stealthy step; and many dark and intricate passages point to this answer. Also, all the way through the passage, the narrator has been describing the utter depression caused in him by the setting.

answers

20. The correct answer is (B). In the previous two paragraphs, the narrator has been speaking of the wallpaper and of its flamboyant patterns. Immediately following, she describes how one can follow its lame uncertain curves. She does not speak of herself or other people in this connection, refuting choices (C), (D), and (E).

..........................................................................................

19. The correct answer is (B). The tone of the description and its close attention to detail seems obsessive; also, the narrator says that the pattern in the wallpaper was pronounced enough to constantly irritate and provoke study. None of the other choices is reflected in the passage.

246

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Section 4 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

B B B A C

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

B C B A D

11. 3.57 12. 3 13. 0 14. 6

15. 16. 17.

19 30° .75 ounce cocoa

18. 19. 20.

1 8 3 4

1. The correct answer is (B). A linear equation has the form y 5 mx 1 b, where m is the slope of the line and b is the y-intercept, which is the point where the line crosses the y-axis. We can see from the diagram that the line crosses the y-axis at point (0,1), which means b is 1. Thus we can immediately eliminate choices (C) and (D). We can also see from the scatter plot that the slope is going to be positive, which eliminates choice (E). But is the slope 7 or 0.7? A line with a slope of 1 makes an angle of 45° with the x-axis. It looks like a line through these dots will make a line that is close to, or a little less than 45°. A line with a slope of 7 means it would be much steeper than 45°. It looks like choice (B) is our answer, but let’s make sure; to find m, the slope of the line, use this formula: m5

~y2 2 y1! ~x2 2 x1!

We are given the coordinates for two points in the diagram, P1 5 (0,1) and P2 5 (7,6). We can use these coordinates to approximate the slope: m5

~6 2 1! ~7 2 01!

5

5 7

' 0.7

Now we are sure, the correct answer is choice (B). 2. The correct answer is (B). Stated algebraically, we are asked to find |(y2 1 0.15) 2 y3| for y 5 3, or |(32 1 0.15) 2 33|. Simplifying, the expression becomes |9.15 2 27| or |217.85|. Think of a number’s absolute value as its distance from the origin. Thus, the point 217.85 on the number line is a distance of 17.85 away from the origin, or |217.85| 5 17.85. 3. The correct answer is (B). Solving for both x and y, we have x 5 23 1 32 5 8 1 9 5 17 and y 5 33 1 22 5 27 1 4 5 31. This means the product of x and y is x • y 5 17 • 31 5 527. 4. The correct answer is (A). Solving the inequality for c yields: 3c 2 4 , 17 3c , 21 c,7 Now it is clear that possible values of c must be less than 7, making choice (A) the correct answer.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 2

247

.................................................................

x

y

2755 x y x

5517

5 12 y x 5 12y Substituting y 5 1 into the equation, we see that x 5 12. 6. The correct answer is (B). Solve this problem by isolating the unknown (x) on one side of the equation, simplifying the expression, then eliminating the radical sign to find x. 3

2=x 2 12526 3

2=x526 1 12 3

=x53

Simplify.

~=x! 53 3

3

Isolate.

3

Eliminate radical.

x527

8. The correct answer is (B). After one year, Tom has: $1,000 1 (.05)(1,000) 5 $1,050. After one year, Al has: $1,000 1 (.025)(1,000) 1 (.025)(1025) 5 $1,050.63. This makes the difference between two accounts: $1,050.63 2 $1,050 5 $0.63. 9. The correct answer is (A). To solve this one, we must first find the radius of the circle. Knowing the area of the circle is 9p, we can find the radius using the formula for the area of a circle. A 5 pr2 5 9p r2 5 9 r53 Now, we can proceed to the solution in several different ways. One way is to use the Pythagorean Theorem, a2 1 b2 5 c2. 32 132 5 ~QR!2 ~QR!2 5 9 1 9 5 18 QR 5 =18 5 3=2 Or, you can solve this problem by noticing that the triangle is a 45° - 45° - 90° triangle, which is a special triangle, whose sides have the ratio 1:1:=2. For the given triangle, this ratio becomes: 3 : 3 : 3=2, where: QR 5 3=2 www.petersons.com

practice test 2

7. The correct answer is (C). The figure shown is an equilateral triangle. An equilateral triangle is one in which all three sides are equal in length, and all three angles are equal to 60°.

answers

SD

..........................................................................................

5. The correct answer is (C). To decide this one, solve the equation for x:

248

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

10. The correct answer is (D). Converting rational exponents to their equivalent radical form and simplifying before plugging in x 5 8, may help you solve this one more easily. 1

f~x! 5

~196!2 2 x 1 x3

5

11

=196 2x 5 142x =3 x 1 1 =3 x 1 1

for x 5 8 f~x! 5

14 2 8 3

=8 1 1

5

6 211

5

6 3

52

11. The correct answer is 3.57. The area of a circle with radius 2 is: A1 5 pr2 5 4p 5 12.57 to two decimal places. The area of a square with side 3 is: A2 5 s2 5 32 5 9 To find the answer, the area remaining, subtract the area of the square from the area of the circle: A1 2 A2 5 12.57 2 9 5 3.57 12. The correct answer is 3. Substituting the values given into the formula for the area of a triangle gives us: Area 5

1 2

Base • Height 5

SD 1

2

• ~6 2 4! • 3 5

1 2

•653

13. The correct answer is 0. Any other digit could not produce this result. 14. The correct answer is 6. The distance between points A and C is 12 2 3 5 9. This means: AB 1 BC 5 9. 1 Since AB 5 BC, BC 5 2AB. 2 Therefore, AB 1 2AB 5 9 3AB 5 9 AB 5 3 Finally, add 3 to the y coordinate of point A to find the y coordinate of point B 5 3 1 3 5 6. 15. The correct answer is 19. Between 1 and 69, there are 7 integers that contain a digit that is 7. Between 70 and 79, there are 10 integers that contain a digit that is 7. Between 80 and 100, there are 2 integers that contain a digit that is 7. This makes a total of 19 integers in the given range that contain a digit that is 7. 16. The correct answer is 30°. 4a and 60° are supplementary angles; therefore, 4a 1 60° 5 180° 4a 5 120° a 5 30°

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 2

249

.................................................................

5

x

1 3 ~.25!~3! 5 x x 5 .75 1 18. The correct answer is . 8 3! ~3 3 2 3 1! 1 3¹45 5 5 4! ~4 3 3 3 2 3 1! 4

SD 1

So, the value of

~3 ¹ 4! 2

5

4 2

5

1 4

3

1 2

5

1 8

19. The correct answer is 3. You can find the length of AC by setting up the equation: AC 5 AB 1 BC. This means that AC 5 7x 1 5x 5 12x. Substituting .25 for x yields the solution: AC 5 12x 5 (12)(.25) 5 3 20. The correct answer is 4. In the first column, A 1 B 5 23 2 (5 1 8 1 3) 5 7. In the second column, A 1 C 5 19 2 (1 1 4 1 3) 5 11. Now solve for B and C, respectively. 1 1 5 5

B57 C 5 11 72A 11 2 A

Therefore, C 2 B 5 ~11 2 A! 2~7 2 A! 5 11 2 A 2 7 1 A 5 11 2 7 54

Section 5 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

B A A D C C E B

9. E 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. E 15. C 16. E

17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

D C D D D C A B

25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.

B B B A D A A

32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39.

B B A C B C B C

1. The correct answer is (B). There is a shift in tense from past (there was) to present (we punch). 2. The correct answer is (A). The phrase looking out over the vast hall is a misplaced modifier, which should modify Roger, not his stomach. www.petersons.com

practice test 2

A A B C

answers

.25

..........................................................................................

17. The correct answer is .75 ounce cocoa. To solve this problem, first convert 36 to 3 (dozen people), then set up the following proportion:

250

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

3. The correct answer is (A). The phrase In accordance to is the wrong form of the idiom In accordance with. 4. The correct answer is (D). Noun-number agreement is faulty in this sentence. 5. The correct answer is (C). The error is a shift in tense from past (were sitting) to present (suddenly see). 6. The correct answer is (C). The error is one of vague pronoun reference. 7. The correct answer is (E). The sentence is written in standard English, without errors. 8. The correct answer is (B). The error is one of faulty comparison, and it’s easy to miss. (The price of kumquats is less than the price of kiwi fruit.) 9. The correct answer is (E). The sentence is correct as written. 10. The correct answer is (A). This is a mistake in subject-verb agreement. The subject (tables and chairs) is plural; the verb (has been) is singular. 11. The correct answer is (D). Type of error: ineffective lack of parallel structure. The series football, baseball, and soccer, choice (B), is parallel; however, the phrase he also liked pitching pennies is not and makes the sentence wordy. Choice (A) is a correctly written introductory element. Choice (C) is a correctly written noun and verb. 12. The correct answer is (B). The error in this sentence is a shift in person from one to you. 13. The correct answer is (D). The sentence order is illogical. The phrase starring Dustin Hoffman and Tom Cruise is a misplaced part that should modify the movie title, Rain Man, not the word autism. 14. The correct answer is (E). The sentence is correctly written. 15. The correct answer is (C). The sentence error is a shift in tense from past (was) to present (have). 16. The correct answer is (E). The sentence is correctly written. 17. The correct answer is (D). The error here is use of a double negative. The phrase should read have no pots. 18. The correct answer is (C). In this sentence, the use of the verb did is ungrammatical. The phrase should read done on the human brain. 19. The correct answer is (D). Type of error: unidiomatic use of preposition. The correct preposition here would be of the whole gang. 20. The correct answer is (D). It is clear and contains all the necessary information. The cliché at the very beginning of the original sentence—In point of fact—indicates that choice (A) is not the answer, since it’s trite and makes the sentence wordy. Choice (B) also contains the cliché and is wordy. Choices (C) and (E) have dropped the cliché and the wordiness, but they have also left out necessary information.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 2

251

.................................................................

23. The correct answer is (A). The sentence is fine the way it is. Approach this problem by reading the sentence quickly, “speaking” it silently. You will find it rhythmical and correct. Choices (B) and (C) make ineffective use of the passive voice. Choices (D) and (E) are awkward. 24. The correct answer is (B). It is written in the active voice and is the most clear and free of jargon. 25. The correct answer is (B). The other choices are inconsistent with the style of the rest of the sentence, being either too formal or too informal. 26. The correct answer is (B). It includes a correctly written modifier, and its style is in keeping with the rest of the sentence. Choices (A), (C), and (D) represent a shift in style from formal to informal. Choice (E) is unnecessarily wordy. 27. The correct answer is (B). In choice (A), the as is missing between handsome and maybe. Choices (C), (D), and (E) include unidiomatic expressions.

29. The correct answer is (D). Choice (A) is a fragment. Choices (B) and (C) represent shifts in tense from past to present. Choice (E) is a colloquialism that is too informal for the style of this sentence. 30. The correct answer is (A). The sentence is correct as it is. The other choices represent shifts in tense. 31. The correct answer is (A). Choice (B) is wordy and redundant. Choices (D) and (E) are wordy, and choice (E) contains the cliché part and parcel. 32. The correct answer is (B). The other choices make unidiomatic use of prepositions. 33. The correct answer is (B). In choices (A) and (E), the pronoun it is singular, whereas the noun that the pronoun refers to (movies) is plural. Choice (D) is wordy and somewhat convoluted. 34. The correct answer is (A). Sentence 9 logically introduces the second paragraph. 35. The correct answer is (C). This choice fits best with the style of the rest of the passage. Choice (A) is wordy. The other choices contain words that are either too informal (chow, victuals), too formal (good inclination, fare), or too pseudo-poetic (blithe spirit) to fit the language of the rest of the essay. In addition, choice (E) isn’t so active or interesting a sentence as choice (C); also there’s no indication that Mom wasn’t happy before frozen food came along.

www.petersons.com

practice test 2

28. The correct answer is (A). The other choices make unidiomatic use of a preposition.

answers

22. The correct answer is (C). The sentence as written makes ineffective use of the passive voice. An approach to this question would be to ask yourself why choice (A) sounds flat. It is because the person committing the action is not in the subject (or active) position in the sentence. The other choices are awkward and unnecessarily convoluted.

..........................................................................................

21. The correct answer is (D). It is the only choice in which the modifier While running the Boston marathon is logically placed so that it modifies the runner.

252

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

36. The correct answer is (B). This choice indicates that the opposite of the previous statement was true. 37. The correct answer is (C). This choice would most logically follow the statement . . . and she liked to have fun. 38. The correct answer is (B). It is the only choice in which the coordinators logically fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 39. The correct answer is (C). This sentence departs most clearly from the topic of the first paragraph.

www.petersons.com

✁

253

.................................................................

SECTION 1 A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 4. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 21. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 22. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 23. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 24. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 17. O

A O B O C O D O E 25. O

A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 17. O

A O B O C O D O E 4. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

SECTION 2

SECTION 3 A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 21. O

A O B O C O D O E 4. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 22. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 23. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 24. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 25. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 17. O

A O B O C O D O E 26. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 27. O

www.petersons.com

answer sheet

ANSWER SHEET PRACTICE TEST 3

..........................................................................................

-------------------------------------------------------------------

Practice Test 3

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 4 A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

4.

A O

B O

C O

D O

E O

11.

12.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

13.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

14.

15.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

16.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

. O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

17.

18.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

19.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

20.

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

0 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

www.petersons.com

✁

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

-------------------------------------------------------------------

254

✁

255

.................................................................

A O B O C O D O E 1. O

A O B O C O D O E 14. O

A O B O C O D O E 27. O

A O B O C O D O E 2. O

A O B O C O D O E 15. O

A O B O C O D O E 28. O

A O B O C O D O E 3. O

A O B O C O D O E 16. O

A O B O C O D O E 29. O

4.

17.

E O

A O B O C O D O E 30. O

A O B O C O D O E 5. O

A O B O C O D O E 18. O

A O B O C O D O E 31. O

A O B O C O D O E 6. O

A O B O C O D O E 19. O

A O B O C O D O E 32. O

A O B O C O D O E 7. O

A O B O C O D O E 20. O

A O B O C O D O E 33. O

A O B O C O D O E 8. O

A O B O C O D O E 21. O

A O B O C O D O E 34. O

A O B O C O D O E 9. O

A O B O C O D O E 22. O

A O B O C O D O E 35. O

A O B O C O D O E 10. O

A O B O C O D O E 23. O

A O B O C O D O E 36. O

A O B O C O D O E 11. O

A O B O C O D O E 24. O

A O B O C O D O E 37. O

A O B O C O D O E 12. O

A O B O C O D O E 25. O

A O B O C O D O E 38. O

A O B O C O D O E 13. O

A O B O C O D O E 26. O

A O B O C O D O E 39. O

A O

B O

C O

D O

E O

A O

B O

C O

D O

www.petersons.com

answer sheet

SECTION 5

..........................................................................................

-------------------------------------------------------------------

Practice Test 3

Practice Test 3

.............................................................................

25 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES For each question below, choose the best answer from the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Directions: Each sentence below has either one or two blanks in it and is followed by five choices, labeled (A) through (E). These choices represent words or phrases that have been left out. Choose the word or phrase that, if inserted into the sentence, would best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Canine massage is a veterinary technique for calming dogs that are extremely ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

inept disciplined controlled stressed restrained

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ C Þ Þ E Þ O O O O

1. The professor’s lectures were organized, perceptive, and ______, for which the students were deeply grateful and ______ . (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2. Since excellent writing is precise and clear, a good editor will see to it that a writer remains ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

insightful. .appreciative confusing. .indifferent patronizing. .insulted rewarding. .incensed redundant. .perplexed

indubitable bold impeded focused talented

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

257

practice test 3

SECTION 1

258

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

3. Effective mystery stories do not spell everything out for readers, but allow readers to ______ details using their ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions: Read each of the passages carefully, then answer the questions that come after them. The answer to each question may be stated overtly or only implied. You will not have to use outside knowledge to answer the questions—all the material you will need will be in the passage itself. In some cases, you will be asked to read two related passages and answer questions about their relationship to one another.

dig up. .talent conjure up. .imaginations invent. .pliability guess about. .comprehension ignore. .naiveté

4. Trackers are people who are trained in reading clues along forest trails, in order to find ______ hikers. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

departed famished wayward missing obstinate

5. Although they are usually thought of as simply ornamental, many varieties of flowers are ______ and even nutritious. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

fragrant noxious carnivorous robust edible

www.petersons.com

QUESTIONS 6–8 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. This passage is adapted from an entry in the online encyclopedia Wikipedia. Line

5

10

15

20

For I will consider my Cat Jeoffry. For he is the servant of the Living God duly and daily serving him. For at the first glance of the glory of God in the East he worships in his way . . . Christopher Smart The above lines—part of the long poem “Jubilate Agno”—were written in the mid 1700s, when Christopher Smart was confined to a mental asylum. The poem is a loving and carefully observed depiction of Jeoffry, the poet’s cat, as he goes about his daily “devotions” (washing, purring, chasing mice, etc). Written during the so-called Age of Reason, the poem was considered by many to be the ravings of a lunatic. However, today the poem is seen as an extraordinary—and superbly organized and complex— meditation on the divine, as revealed through the natural world.

Practice Test 3

259

.................................................................

7. By using the term so-called Age of Reason, rather than simply Age of Reason, the author implies that the way Smart was treated was (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

unfortunate but necessary. the best judgment of the day. common in those days. not based on true reason. cruel and unusual punishment.

8. The word “devotions,” as used in the passage, refers to behaviors that, for Smart, resemble acts of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

sacrifice. defiance. reverence. kindness. intelligence.

This passage was taken from an entry in the online encyclopedia Wikipedia. Line

5

10

15

Groupthink is a term coined by psychologist Irving Janis in 1972 to describe one process by which a group can make bad or irrational decisions. In a groupthink situation, each member of the group attempts to conform his or her opinions to what they believe to be the consensus of the group. This results in a situation in which the group ultimately agrees on an action which each member might normally consider to be unwise. One solution to the pitfall of groupthink is to appoint one group member to play Devil’s Advocate—that is, to counter each of the group decisions with its opposite, without fear of reprisal. 9. In group decision-making, the role of the Devil’s Advocate is mainly to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

revile the group’s decision. contradict the group’s decision. agree with the group’s decision. nullify the group’s decision. speed up the group’s decision.

10. What is the meaning of “consensus” as used in the passage (line 8)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Manipulation Theory Commandment Censure Concurrence

practice test

(A) give an example of Smart’s ability to portray the link between God and nature. (B) make the passage less puzzling and incomprehensible to the reader. (C) show that the author of the passage believes animals are important. (D) demonstrate that, although intelligent, Smart was mentally ill. (E) show the depth of Smart’s love for his cat, Jeoffry.

QUESTIONS 9–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

..........................................................................................

6. The most likely reason the author of the passage includes lines from the poem, “Jubilate Agno” is to

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

260

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

11. Based on the passage, which of the following is the best example of Groupthink? (A) A club unanimously elects a treasurer who seems honest and is someone they all like, but who shocks them later by embezzling money. (B) To avoid hurt feelings, a family goes on vacation together, even though each member secretly wants to stay home; the trip is a disaster. (C) Soldiers in a squadron dutifully obey their commander’s order to take part in a dangerous mission, even though each is secretly terrified. (D) A corporate officer intimidates employees into working overtime without extra pay, by threatening to outsource their jobs. (E) A business group considers a new investment. Each member secretly examines the deal, finds it sound, and in the end the group invests.

20

25

30

35

40

45

QUESTIONS 12–20 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. The passage is an essay by George Bernard Shaw, 1925 Nobel Prize winner, entitled “What is a Child?” Line

5

10

15

An experiment. A fresh attempt to . . . make humanity divine. And you will vitiate the experiment if you make the slightest attempt to abort it into some fancy figure of your own: for example, your notion of a good man or a womanly woman. If you treat it as a little wild beast to be tamed, or as a pet to be played with, or even as a means to save you trouble and to make money for you (and these are our commonest ways), it may fight its way through in spite of you and save its soul alive; for all its instincts will resist you, and possibly be strengthened in the resistance; but if you begin with its own holiest aspirations, and suborn

www.petersons.com

50

55

60

65

70

them for your own purposes, then there is hardly any limit to the mischief you may do. Swear at a child, throw your boots at it, send it flying from the room with a cuff or a kick; and the experience will be as instructive to the child as a difficulty with a short-tempered dog or a bull. Francis Place tells us that his father always struck his children when he found one within his reach. The effect on the young Places seems to have been simply to make them keep out of their father’s way, which was no doubt what he desired, as far as he desired anything at all. Francis records the habit without bitterness, having reason to thank his stars that his father respected the inside of his head whilst cuffing the outside of it; and this made it easy for Francis to do yeoman’s service to his country as that rare and admirable thing, a Freethinker: the only sort of thinker, I may remark, whose thoughts, and consequently whose religious convictions, command any respect. Now Mr. Place, senior, would be described by many as a bad father; and I do not contend that he was a conspicuously good one. But as compared with the conventional good father who deliberately imposes himself on his son as a god; who takes advantage of childish credulity and parent worship to persuade his son that what he approves of is right and what he disapproves of is wrong; who imposes a corresponding conduct on the child by a system of prohibitions and penalties, rewards and eulogies, for which he claims divine sanction: compared to this sort of . . . monster maker, I say, Place appears almost as a Providence. Not that it is possible to live with children any more than with grown-up people without imposing rules of conduct on them. There is a point at which every person with human nerves has to say to a child “Stop that noise.” But suppose the child asks why! There are various answers in use. The simplest: “Because it irritates me,” may

Practice Test 3

261

.................................................................

85

90

12. The author’s main point in the passage is that, when raising a child, (A) it is wise to use physical punishment, since is the only thing a child understands. (B) a parent should remember that children are basically wild and need to be tamed, by physical force, if necessary. (C) a parent should encourage the child’s basic nature, since that way the child may grow up to be a freethinker, which will be best for society. (D) it is better to be straightforward (even physically abusive, though that is not condoned) than to be hypocritical. (E) it is all right to use corporal punishment as long as it is done with love.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Reiterate Encourage Enliven Spoil Apply

14. The phrase “its own holiest aspirations” (lines 16–17) refers to the child’s (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

self-love. love of Jesus. ambition in life. secret beliefs. best instincts.

15. Lines 23–25 state that, if one cuffs or kicks a child, “the experience will be as instructive to the child as a difficulty with a short-tempered dog or a bull.” In the context of the rest of the passage, this means that the child will learn (A) to be cautious when he or she goes out into the world. (B) fear and hatred of the parent. (C) a practical lesson—not to do it again. (D) respect for the parent. (E) to be secretive and devious around the parent 16. In context, the statement that Francis Place “[had] reason to thank his stars that his father respected the inside of his head” (lines 34–36) means that Francis felt lucky to have had a father who, although physically abusive, (A) did not try to influence Francis’s thinking. (B) raised Francis as a freethinker. (C) loved Francis deeply. (D) gave Francis a good education. (E) provided Francis with the basic necessities.

practice test

80

13. What is the meaning of the word “vitiate” as it is used in line 3?

..........................................................................................

75

fail; for it may strike the child as being rather amusing to irritate you; also the child, having comparatively no nerves, may be unable to conceive your meaning vividly enough. In any case it may want to make a noise more than to spare your feelings. You may therefore have to explain that the effect of the irritation will be that you will do something unpleasant if the noise continues. The something unpleasant may be only a look of suffering to rouse the child’s affectionate sympathy (if it has any), or it may run to forcible expulsion from the room with plenty of unnecessary violence; but the principle is the same: there are no false pretenses involved: the child learns in a straightforward way that it does not pay to be inconsiderate. Also, perhaps, that Mamma, who made the child learn the Sermon on the Mount, is not really a Christian.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

262

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

17. Which of the following does the author use to make his point in paragraph 2? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Objective reporting Comparison/contrast Appeal to authority Sober reasoning Bitter sarcasm

18. Which of the following devices does the author use in line 61, when he says that, compared to a father who encourages the child’s natural parent-worship, “Place appears almost as a Providence”? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

A concrete example Hyperbole (exaggeration) A sweeping generalization A cliché A logical syllogism

19. The last two lines of the essay imply that if a child is misbehaving and you threaten him or her in a straightforward way with unpleasant consequences (even violence), the child will learn that you (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

do not love him. are a sinner. are not perfect. know best. are a bad parent.

QUESTIONS 21–25 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. The passage is an excerpt from the Department of Energy’s Annual Report of the Council on Environmental Quality (1993). Line

5

10

15

20

25

20. It can be inferred from the passage that the author views children with (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

distaste. respect. scorn. repugnance. indifference.

www.petersons.com

30

35

40

45

Wetlands and coastal waters, two areas rich in natural resources, have historically been under intense pressure from development, and the pressure is beginning to show. Of all species currently listed as threatened or endangered, 54 percent are found in wetlands and deepwater habitats. Wetlands played a prominent role in the settlement of the United States, but farmers and settlers, perceiving them as a hindrance to productive land use, routinely drained, filled, or otherwise manipulated bogs, swamps, and marshes to produce dry land for agricultural use or homesites. Only recently has society begun to appreciate wetlands and their benefits, but not before half of them were converted to other uses. U.S. wetlands range from extensive coastal marshes and inland swamps in the Southeast to bogs and shrub swamps in the North, and from tropical wetland forests in Hawaii to permafrost wetlands in Alaska. This diversity reflects regional differences in climate, hydrology, soils, and vegetation. In coastal areas 73 percent of all wetlands are emergent herbaceous wetlands such as marsh, whereas inland, only 25 percent are marsh. The remaining inland wetlands are forested (53 percent), shrub (16 percent), and pond (6 percent). Wetlands provide an array of beneficial functions and values. This ecotype plays an integral part in maintaining the quality of human life and wildlife as well as the vigor of the U.S. economy. Americans also use wetlands for recreational activities such as canoeing, fishing, and bird watching. Wetlands store large amounts of water in organic deposits and basins,

Practice Test 3

263

.................................................................

60

65

70

75

80

85

90

95

On August 24, 1993, the Administration announced a package of wetland reforms entitled Protecting America’s Wetlands: A Fair, Flexible, and Effective Approach. The reform package was 105 prepared by the Interagency Working Group on Federal Wetlands Policy convened in June 1993 to formulate a workable policy. Chaired by the White House Office on Environmental Policy, 110 the group included the EPA, Army Corps of Engineers, Office of Management and Budget, and the departments of Agriculture, Commerce, Energy, Interior, Justice, and Transportation. 21. Which of the following best expresses the main point of paragraph 2? (A) Almost too late, society has begun appreciating its wetlands, which it previously nearly destroyed. (B) Wetlands have been systematically damaged throughout our history. (C) Wetlands were important to the settlement of the United States. (D) Earlier farmers and settlers did not appreciate wetlands the way present-day environmentalists do. (E) Wetlands have always served an important agricultural purpose. 22. As described in paragraph 6, among the services performed by wetlands in their role as natural filtration systems (line 69) is (A) adding important heavy metals for use by humans. (B) filtering out contaminants such as pesticides. (C) nourishing plants and animals. (D) adding rich sediments to the soil. (E) removing suspended sediments.

practice test

55

100

..........................................................................................

50

providing erosion and flood control, flow stabilization, and the recharging of underground aquifers. Effective flood control is the result of a number of factors including the interrelationship of wetlands with streamflow within a particular watershed. Recent research finds that flood peaks may be reduced by 80 percent in watersheds with a 30-percent wetland area and by 65 percent if a watershed has only 15 percent of its area in wetlands. . . . As water flows through a wetland system, plants, animals, and sediments absorb, assimilate, or change the chemical form of many contaminants, including heavy metals, introduced into the watershed by human activities. Significant amounts of suspended sediments also are removed from the water during the seepage process, and thus wetlands serve as natural filtration systems and improve the quality of the water. Wetlands provide habitats for diverse and abundant fish, wildlife, and plant species, many of which are found in the diets of humans. The ecotype produces large amounts of detritus which forms the base of a complex food web that cycles energy and nutrients within the wetland environment and exports nutrients into adjacent areas. Half of the species that inhabit wetlands are restricted to this land-cover type or choose to frequent it. Although the rate of wetland losses has declined in recent years, conservation efforts remain essential to protect this ecotype which the nation has come to appreciate. Recognizing the need to improve federal wetlands policy, the Administration issued a comprehensive package of initiatives that included legislative recommendations and administrative actions addressing both the Clean Water Act Section 404 program and nonregulatory protection approaches. In addition an array of federal programs were underway to acquire, mitigate, protect, and restore wetlands.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

264

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

23. Paragraph 1 implies that intense pressure from development (lines 3–4) is (A) endangering many species. (B) causing wetlands to become more widely appreciated. (C) enabling humans to learn more about wetland history. (D) causing deepwater habitats to be drained. (E) enabling developers to profit from wetland use.

25. The final paragraph deals mainly with wetland (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

products. economics. science. reform. manipulation.

24. The statistics reported in paragraph 3 are mainly used to show that wetlands are (A) being systematically destroyed. (B) economically important to humans. (C) geographically diverse. (D) filled with natural beauty. (E) becoming more and more heavily populated.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 3

265

.................................................................

Solve problems 1–20, then select the best of the choices given for each one and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. You may use available space on the page for scratchwork. Notes: 1. You may use a calculator. All of the numbers used are real numbers.

Reference Information

2. You may use the figures that accompany the problems to help you find the solution. Unless the instructions say that a figure is not drawn to scale, assume that it has been drawn accurately. Each figure lies in a plane unless the instructions say otherwise.

r

w

A 5 pr2 C 5 2pr

h w

h b

r

h b

c a

2x

60

x s

2s

45

30

45

3x

s

1

bh V 5 ,wh V 5 pr2h c2 5 a2 1 b2 Special Right Triangles 2 The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180. A 5 ,w

A5

1. 4 3 (7 1 1) 2 6 5 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

7 8 21 23 26

(A) 3(z 1 x) (B)

2. If angle a and obtuse angle b are supplementary angles, which of the following statements is true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

a a a a b

, . 5 5 5

3. If x 1 3y 5 z, what is the value of y?

b b b 180° 90°

~xz!

3 1 (C) ~z 2 x! 3 ~x 2 z! (D) 3 (E) 23(z 2 x)

4. What is the volume, in cubic inches, of a rectangular solid of length 8 inches and width 6 inches if its height is one half its width? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

120 144 168 192 576

practice test

20 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES

..........................................................................................

SECTION 2

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

266

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

5. What is the wall thickness, in inches, of a tube with an outer diameter of .750 and an inner diameter of .625? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

.0625 .125 .625 .6875 .750

6. A pair of pants sells for $6 more than 75% of its price. What is the price of the pants? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$12 $18 $20 $24 $36

7. In the figure below, what is the value of a?

9. For what values of a and b is (a 3 b) , 0? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

a a a a a

3, b 5 .0001 22, b 5 2.0001 7, b 5 0 21, b 5 219 22, b 5 3

5 5 5 5 5

10. How tall is a flag pole that casts a 60-foot shadow if a nearby fence post, four feet high, casts a 10-foot shadow? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

40 36 30 24 15

11. What is the value of

S

9x3 2

DS D

z2

y

2

11

when x 5 21, y 5 1, z 5 2? (A) (B) (C) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

15° 20° 30° 45° 90°

8. What % of 5 is 90% of 50? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2.25 9 10 90 900

www.petersons.com

(D)

25 11 1 11 21 11 27 11

(E) 21

Practice Test 3

267

.................................................................

Q R S

l

T

B E

A

U

l

l (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

P5S P5Q T5S T5P R5Q

13. A woman’s coin purse contains 65 cents in 11 coins, all nickels and dimes. How many coins are dimes? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1 2 3 4 5

14. What percent of two gallons is a quart? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

12.5% 25% 50% 67% 75%

C

D

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

60° 45° 30° 40° 15°

16. A shopper obtains a 30% discount on the price of a chair and pays $420. How much was the original price of the chair? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$126 $450 $577 $600 $1,400

17. In triangle ABC, m∠C 5 2m∠B, m∠A 5 6m∠B. What is the measure of ∠C? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

5° 15° 20° 30° 40°

practice test

P

15. In the figure below, AC and BD are chords of a circle that intersect at point E. AD is the diameter. If the measure of arc AB 5 40° and m∠CED 5 60°, what is the measure of ∠CAD?

..........................................................................................

12. In the figure below, if lines l1 and l2 are parallel, and l3 transects l1 and l2 at an acute angle, which of the following statements is FALSE? (P, Q, R, S, T, and U are angles.)

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

268

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

18. If

ab is defined as ad 2 cb, then cd

ab a b 1 1 2cb 5 cd c d (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

ad 2 cb 22cb 0 2ad 24cb

20. If a 1 b 5 27 and 3c 2 a 5 0, what does c equal? (A) (B) (C) (D)

3a 27 27 2 b 9 2 3b b (E) 9 2 3

19. If the base of a right triangle is 8=2 and the hypotenuse is 18, what is the area of the triangle? (A) 14 (B) 14=2 (C) 56=2 (D) 64 (E) 64=2

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 3

269

.................................................................

For each question below, choose the best answer from the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Directions: Each sentence below has either one or two blanks in it and is followed by five choices, labeled (A) through (E). These choices represent words or phrases that have been left out. Choose the word or phrase that, if inserted into the sentence, would best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Example: Canine massage is a veterinary technique for calming dogs that are extremely ______. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

inept disciplined controlled stressed restrained

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ C Þ Þ E Þ O O O O

1. Studies have shown that breathing exercises can ease ______ during dental work, even without the use of anesthesia, which is good news for patients. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

discomfiture discourtesy discomfort disinterest disjunction

2. The airline’s brochure reminds passengers that, if they are injured or ______, they may request that an airline ______ meet them at the gate with a wheelchair. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

fatigued. .executive disabled. .escort mutilated. .paramedic disconcerted. .paragon damaged. .handler

3. When we _______ similar beliefs, we identify ourselves as members of the group. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

reform espouse procure enthrall remand

4. Dentists say that for effective dental ______, people should brush their teeth for 3 minutes after each meal. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

perquisites admonition hygiene excision renovation

practice test

27 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES

..........................................................................................

SECTION 3

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

270

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

5. Parents can use the “V-chip” to ensure that their children do not watch ______ television programs. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

inappropriate ineffable inconsiderate indeterminate inexhaustible

6. To ensure patient privacy, the results of certain medical tests are kept ______ by law. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

restrained admissible legitimate confidential restorative

Directions: Read each of the passages carefully and answer the questions that come after them. Base your answers on what is stated or implied as well as on any introductory material provided. QUESTIONS 9–10 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. This excerpt is from Jules Verne’s Around the World in 80 Days. Line

5

7. For people who have allergies to dog and cat hair, the iguana, being ______, makes a/an ______ pet. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

placid. .tedious surreal. .remarkable reptilian. .grotesque unprecedented. .engaging hairless. .lovely

8. Acupuncture, previously thought of as an unorthodox kind of therapy, is now gaining ______ in this country; therefore even some conservative doctors now use it in ______ traditional medical procedures. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

respect. .conjunction with animosity. .spite of antipathy. .opposition to esteem. .light of disdain. .protest to

www.petersons.com

10

15

Was Phileas Fogg rich? Undoubtedly. But those who knew him best could not imagine how he had made his fortune, and Mr. Fogg was the last person to whom to apply for the information. He was not lavish, nor, on the contrary, avaricious; for, whenever he knew that money was needed for a noble, useful, or benevolent purpose, he supplied it quietly and sometimes anonymously. He was, in short, the least communicative of men. He talked very little, and seemed all the more mysterious for his taciturn manner. His daily habits were quite open to observation; but whatever he did was so exactly the same thing that he had always done before, that the wits of the curious were fairly puzzled. 9. The main purpose of the question that opens the passage is to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

inform the reader. goad the reader. test the reader. intrigue the reader. disturb the reader.

10. In the context of the passage, which is the best meaning of the word “avaricious” (line 7)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Bitter Cruel Greedy Dishonest Ignorant

Practice Test 3

271

.................................................................

This excerpt is from Thomas Paine’s “The Age of Reason” (1796). Line

5

10

15

I believe in one God, and no more; and I hope for happiness beyond this life . . . and I believe that religious duties consist in doing justice, loving mercy, and endeavoring to make our fellowcreatures happy . . . [But] I do not believe in the creed professed by the Jewish church, by the Roman church, by the Greek church, by the Turkish church, by the Protestant church, nor by any church that I know of. My own mind is my own church. All national institutions of churches . . . appear to me no other than human inventions set up to terrify and enslave mankind, and monopolize power and profit.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

QUESTIONS 14–15 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. The following excerpt is from Wally Lamb’s “Why I Write,” comments to the National Council on the Arts. Line

5

11. In terms of its tone and purpose, the passage can best be described as a(n) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

denunciation. investigation. meditation. summary. debate.

12. Which best represents Paine’s religious beliefs as expressed in the passage? (A) Because I believe in one God, I do not share the beliefs of foreign cultures. (B) I do not believe that any organized religion’s dogma is divinely inspired. (C) The best kind of church is one that believes in a single, all-powerful God. (D) Organized religion on a national scale can work for both good and evil. (E) My religious beliefs are shared by very few other men and women.

Inconsistencies Anomalies Imitations Temptations Fabrications

10

15

To write a first-person novel is to go on a journey. . . to stow away in the suitcase of some other, imagined person’s life. . . . That’s how I became a woman in [my novel,] She’s Come Undone and the embittered twin brother of a paranoid schizophrenic in I Know This Much Is True. . . . So I do not usually follow the standard rule espoused in creative writing classes: write what you know. My impulse, instead, is to write about what I don’t know so that I can live the life of “the other” and move beyond the limitations—the benign prison—of my own life experiences.

14. The metaphor of stowing away in a suitcase lends to the fiction-writing process an air of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

refinement. adventure. fraudulence. sentimentality. solemnity.

15. The phrase “benign prison—of my own life experiences” (lines 15–16) implies that the writer feels his own life has been (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

sheltered. sterile. insecure. boring. depressing.

practice test

13. In the context of the passage, which word would best replace the word “inventions”?

..........................................................................................

QUESTIONS 11–13 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

272

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Passage 1 Passage 1 is comprised of excerpts from an address by Mary Robinson, United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights, upon her acceptance of the Erasmus Prize on November 9, 1999. Line

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

Hard questions are being asked about the gap between the ideals of the human rights movement and the evidence appearing before us daily that shows how far respect for human rights is from being embedded in society. In this year alone we have witnessed gross human rights violations in Kosovo, East Timor, Sierra Leone and the Great Lakes region, to mention only some of the worst instances. The placing of human rights centre stage in political life must produce tangible improvements if there is not to be an erosion of credibility and a rise in cynicism. . . . As far as the individual’s responsibilities are concerned, champions of human rights have recognized that, just as we possess rights simply by virtue of being human, so also we have responsibilities to those around us. There is an understandable hesitation to place too much emphasis on responsibilities and duties because unscrupulous regimes have been known to argue that duties to the State are more important than the rights of the individual. The drafters of the Universal Declaration considered listing parallel responsibilities or duties to match the rights they proclaimed, but they realized that this might qualify or relativise fundamental rights. So the issue of duties was encapsulated in one article, Article 29. . . . The onus on governments to discharge their responsibilities is clear. Governments may have ceded some of their powers to market forces over which they have little control but they retain far-reaching powers over citizens. The human rights message to governments is: you should rule wisely and respect the rights of the ruled

www.petersons.com

50

55

60

65

70

75

80

85

90

because these rights are not yours to give or take. There are three strategies which I would like to emphasize as having a particular role in strengthening the culture of human rights. The first is Prevention. Prevention of human rights violations must become a greater priority than it is at present. Prevention is a normal part of our lives in so many ways but where conflicts are concerned it tends to be honored on paper but not in practice. We should be alive to the huge advantages of heading off human rights violations before they happen and apply the sophisticated preventive habits we know so well at home to the field of conflict prevention. The second area is Accountability. Accountability is really a form of prevention since it signals that those who commit gross violations of human rights will not get away with it. There are encouraging signs that national judicial authorities are taking the position that grave human rights violations must be accounted for, wherever, whenever and by whomever they were committed. And a major advance has been made with the adoption of the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court. In that context I would like to pay tribute to the impressive contribution made over the years by the Netherlands to the development of an effective international criminal justice system. The third strategy I would support is greater emphasis on economic, social and cultural rights. This set of rights gets less attention than the better known civil and political rights but I am convinced that an enduring culture of human rights cannot take root where access to food, to education and even to basic healthcare is denied. Let me conclude by quoting from Aung San Suu Kyi*, who lives the

* Human rights activist, leader of the prodemocracy movement in Myanmar (formerly called Burma), and winner of the 1991 Nobel Peace

Practice Test 3

273

.................................................................

Passage 2

35

40

45

Excerpts from the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, adopted by the United Nations on December 10, 1948. Line

5

10

15

20

25

30

Now, THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY proclaims THIS UNIVERSAL DECLARATION OF HUMAN RIGHTS as a common standard of achievement for all peoples and all nations. . . . Article 1. All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood. Article 2. Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration, without distinction of any kind, such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status. Furthermore, no distinction shall be made on the basis of the political, jurisdictional or international status of the country or territory to which a person belongs, whether it be independent, trust, non-self-governing or under any other limitation of sovereignty. Article 3. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Article 4. No one shall be held in slavery or servitude; slavery and the slave trade shall be prohibited in all their forms.

Prize, who, in July 1989, was placed under house arrest by the ruling junta for allegedly “endangering the state.”

50

55

60

65

70

75

80

Article 5. No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. Article 6. Everyone has the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law. Article 7. All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law. All are entitled to equal protection against any discrimination in violation of this Declaration and against any incitement to such discrimination. Article 8. Everyone has the right to an effective remedy by the competent national tribunals for acts violating the fundamental rights granted him by the constitution or by law. Article 9. No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. Article 10. Everyone is entitled in full equality to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial tribunal, in the determination of his rights and obligations and of any criminal charge against him. . . . Article 16. (1) Men and women of full age, without any limitation due to race, nationality or religion, have the right to marry and to found a family. They are entitled to equal rights as to marriage, during marriage, and at its dissolution. (2) Marriage shall be entered into only with the free and full consent of the intending spouses. (3) The family is the natural and fundamental group unit of society and is entitled to protection by society and the State. . . . Article 18. Everyone has the right to freedom of thought, conscience, and religion; this right includes freedom to change his religion or belief, and freedom, either alone or in community with others and in public or private, to manifest his religion or belief in teaching, practice, worship, and observance. . . . Article 29. (1) Everyone has duties to the community in which alone the

practice test

values she advocates: “At the root of human responsibility is the concept of perfection, the urge to achieve it, the intelligence to find a path towards it, and the will to follow that path if not 100 to the end at least the distance needed to rise above individual limitations and environmental impediments. . . . Concepts such as truth, justice and compassion cannot be dismissed as 105 trite when these are often the only bulwarks which stand against ruthless power.”

..........................................................................................

95

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

274

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

85

90

95

free and full development of his personality is possible. (2) In the exercise of his rights and freedoms, everyone shall be subject only to such limitations as are determined by law solely for the purpose of securing due recognition and respect for the rights and freedoms of others and of meeting the just requirements of morality, public order and the general welfare in a democratic society. (3) These rights and freedoms may in no case be exercised contrary to the purposes and principles of the United Nations.

16. What device does the author of Passage 1 use for strengthening her argument in the first paragraph? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Irony Sharp definitions of terms Real-world examples Appeal to authority Statistical data

17. The second paragraph of Passage 1 maintains that the framers of the Declaration decided that, if the responsibilities of citizens were stressed too much in the Declaration, (A) corrupt governments might use this as an excuse to oppress their citizens even more. (B) citizens of some countries might reject the Declaration. (C) corrupt governments might resent being told what their citizens’ responsibilities are. (D) the Declaration might not pass the General Assembly of the United Nations. (E) citizens would be unfairly burdened by having to act more responsibly.

www.petersons.com

18. What is the meaning of the word “ceded” in the context of the third paragraph (line 39) of Passage 1? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Perpetuated Relinquished Prioritized Betrayed Mandated

19. Paragraph 6 of Passage 1 endorses human rights laws that are (A) clearly written. (B) fair to both government and citizens. (C) enforceable. (D) taken out of national hands and put into international hands. (E) open-ended. 20. A particular example of the rights that the author feels are NOT emphasized enough would be the right to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

free elections. vote. learn to read. hold office. criticize the government in power.

21. Aung San Suu Kyi, quoted in the final paragraph of Passage 1, is from (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Kosovo. China. Myanmar. the United States. The information is not available in the passage.

22. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights assumes that basic human rights belong to (A) all citizens of free countries. (B) all people everywhere. (C) all governments that treat their citizens fairly. (D) everyone who has a conscience. (E) everyone who exercises his or her civil and political responsibilities.

Practice Test 3

275

.................................................................

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

earned. purchased. innate. relinquishable. obscure.

27. Article 16 in Passage 2 relates directly what the author of Passage 1 says in her “three strategies” paragraphs (lines 48–92)—that is, (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

prevention. accountability. economic rights. social and cultural rights. citizen responsibilities.

24. Articles 8 and 10 of the Declaration deal mainly with (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

deportation or exile of citizens. criminal acts by citizens. family law. the legal rights of citizens. the financial rights of citizens.

25. Article 16 of the Declaration specifically grants to each man and woman (A) equal human rights, even if he or she is divorced. (B) the right to marry regardless of age. (C) the right to marry only within one’s religion. (D) equal rights if he or she is a responsible citizen. (E) the right to be protected by his or her family.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. www.petersons.com

practice test

(A) All citizens of a country should voice their political opinions. (B) The upper classes shall have a responsibility to take care of the lower classes. (C) In regard to the granting of equal human rights, there shall be no discrimination of any kind. (D) All citizens of a country should engage in responsible behavior. (E) No citizen should be regarded as more distinguished than any other.

26. The passages are alike in regarding human rights as rights that are, first and foremost,

..........................................................................................

23. In the context of Article 2 of the Declaration, what is the specific meaning of the phrase “without distinction of any kind”?

276

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 4 20 QUESTIONS • 25 INUTES

This section is made up of two types of questions, multiple choice—10 questions—and Student-Produced Response—10 questions. You have 25 minutes to complete the section. You may use available space on the page for scratchwork. Notes: 1. You may use a calculator. All of the numbers used are real numbers.

Reference Information

2. You may use the figures that accompany the problems to help you find the solution. Unless the instructions say that a figure is not drawn to scale, assume that it has been drawn accurately. Each figure lies in a plane unless the instructions say otherwise.

r

w

A 5 pr2 C 5 2pr

h w

h b

r

h b

c a

2x

60

x s

2s

45

30

45

3x

s

1

bh V 5 ,wh V 5 pr2h c2 5 a2 1 b2 Special Right Triangles 2 The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. The measure in degrees of a straight angle is 180. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180. A 5 ,w

3

A5

1

1. Simplify 422 1 6423 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1 16 1 8 1 4 3 8 1 2

www.petersons.com

2. Given 4x 1 3y 5 12 1 3y, find x. 3 (A) 3 1 y 2 1 (B) 4 3 (C) 1 1 (D) 3 6 (E) 12 1 y 2

Practice Test 3

277

.................................................................

5

2 ft

6 ft

45

P 2 ft

6 ft Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1 18 1 9 1 3 1 2 1 1

R

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

5 4 3 8 10 1

5. For x 5 6, find ~x2!2. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

6 3.460 2.048 1.570 48

6. Given 2y 1 4x 5 24, find x when y 5 2. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

12 7 6 5 4

7. Given the following diagram, find a. °

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

150° 120° 90° 60° 30°

practice test

Q

..........................................................................................

4. Given the following diagram, find the length of PR.

3. Suppose a dart is thrown at the target below in such a way that it is as likely to hit one point as another. What is the probability that the dart will land in the inner square?

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

278

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

8. Find the reciprocal of 0.04. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

25.00 2.50 16.00 0.25 250.00

9. A car-rental agency will rent you a car for $220 per week plus 40 cents per mile. You have budgeted $400 to spend on car rental. How many miles can you drive without exceeding your budget? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

72 88 100 450 550

www.petersons.com

10. If it takes one hour to hike one-third of a three-mile trail, how long does it take to hike one mile? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

20 minutes 60 minutes 40 minutes 200 minutes 180 minutes

Practice Test 3

279

.................................................................

-

practice test

10

..........................................................................................

QUESTIONS 11–20 REQUIRE YOU TO SOLVE THE PROBLEMS, THEN ENTER YOUR ANSWERS BY MARKING OVALS IN THE SPECIAL GRID, AS SHOWN IN THE EXAMPLES BELOW.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

280

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

11. Given

2 10

1

2 5

1

2 4

3

1 8 5 x, find x2. 15. What decimal does

5 1 3

12. Given x 5

Î Î 1

64 decimal places.

1

2

1

1 2

1 10 2

equal? 1 6

1

, find x to 3 25 16. If a truck can carry a maximum of 1,000 lbs, how many full 60-lb bags of concrete mix can it carry without exceeding 1,000 lbs?

13. 9 is 15% of what number?

17. If I can travel at a rate of 25 miles in 20 minutes, how many hours will it take me to go 225 miles? 14. The base of a 20-foot ladder is placed nine feet away from a wall. If the ladder is leaned against the wall, how high up the wall will the ladder reach?

www.petersons.com

18. In the following figure AC and DB are straight lines, EB 5 16, DE 5 24, BC 5 10. What is the length of AD? A

D

E

B

C

Practice Test 3

281

.................................................................

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. www.petersons.com

practice test

STOP

20. A bucket of soil weighs between 12 and 16 pounds. Excluding the container’s weight, what is the maximum number of buckets it will take to fill a container to a weight of 240 pounds?

..........................................................................................

19. What is the difference of 0.64 0.36 2 ? 8 6

282

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

SECTION 5 39 QUESTIONS • 25 MINUTES For each question below, select the best answer from the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Directions: The following questions will test your knowledge of grammar, usage, diction, and idiom. Some sentences are correct. No sentence contains multiple errors. In each sentence below, five elements, labeled (A) through (E), are underlined and lettered. One (and ONLY one) of the underlined elements may contain an error. In choosing your answer, be sure to follow the rules of standard written English. You can assume that the parts of the sentences not underlined are correct. If the sentence has no error, choose Þ E , “No error.” O Example: My dog Sally and my cat Buster gets along well with each other, eating A B and sleeping together, playing quietly, C and sharing their food and treats. D No error. E Sample Answer: B Þ C Þ D Þ E Þ Þ O O O O

1. The Women’s Health Initiative is an attempt by the National Institutes A of Health to correct errors in medical A B research that results from medicaC tions not being tested on women. D No error. E

www.petersons.com

2. King Arthur was a fine, disciplined horse, until he got fed up one A B day, kicks down the barn door, and C attacked Bossy, the neighbor’s cow. D No error. E 3. I was very frightened, because the A watchdogs stood in a row and won’t B C allow me to enter. No error. D E

Practice Test 3

283

.................................................................

5. What does either Sam or Josh know A B C about disease, hunger, or being poor? D No error. E

11. When arresting loiterers and vaA grants, the constitutional right to B freedom of assembly must be kept C in mind by police. No error. D E

6. Although it is said that democracy A means “majority rules,” in this country B only a minority of eligible voters C participate with most elections. D No error. E

do not get fed until 6:00 p.m., but A they’re frequently B whining and begging by 4:30. C D No error. E

12. The teachers, like the students, A was sick of the strict dress code, even B C though they knew it was necessary. D No error. E

7. My Great Aunt Ida advises that, A when learning to ski, a slope approB priate to one’s level of skill is vitally C important, and I have learned the D hard way that she is right! No error. E

13. John will not bake a pie

8. There are war photograph images A that we will never forget, because B they are forever seared onto our C D collective mind’s eye. No error. E

14. My dog Taz, a remarkable canine, A entered the terrorist’s home and B immediately sniffs out C the explosive device. No error. D E

9. When Roger Baldwin recruited A lawyers to defend draft resisters B during the first world war, he C brought the ACLU into being. D No error. E

15. My boyfriend Bill often orders pizza A for hisself and me, even though B I tell him repeatedly that pizza will C clog our arteries. No error. D E

for Thanksgiving dinner, because A he was mad at Aunt Bette for saying B C his last pie tasted like socks. D No error. E

practice test

10. Alice’s dogs, Zelda and Max,

..........................................................................................

4. One might feel that a health-club A membership would motivate one B to work out regularly and get in C shape, but you would be sadly D mistaken. No error. E

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

284

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

16. Carlos was astonished to realize that, A B during the marathon, he had drank C D six gallons of water. No error. E 17. The company president, along with A several other executive officers, B has recently received a C well-deserved bonus. No error. D E 18. He pitches the stolen loot into A the trunk of his car, B covered it with a tarp, and speeds C D away. No error. E

www.petersons.com

19. Although many fans of country music A and rock-and-roll would disagree, B most musicologists assert that jazz is C the only truly American music form. D No error. E

Practice Test 3

285

.................................................................

Choose the answer that best expresses the meaning of the original sentence. If in your opinion the original sentence is the best option, choose it. Your choice should produce the most effective sentence. Example: I am going to the store to buy a food item, which is bread. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

buy buy buy buy buy

a food item, which is bread a food item, bread bread a food item, which is called bread what is called bread

Sample Answer: A Þ B Þ Þ D Þ E Þ O O O O

20. The sting went off without a hitch, except for a brief moment of hesitation on the part of the victim. (A) The sting went off without a hitch, except for a brief moment of hesitation on the part of the victim. (B) The sting went off without a hitch. Except for a brief moment of hesitation on the part of the victim. (C) The sting went off. Without a hitch, except for a brief moment of hesitation on the part of the victim. (D) The sting, went off without a hitch, except for a brief moment of hesitation on the part of the victim. (E) The sting went off without a hitch except, for a brief moment of hesitation on the part of the victim.

21. They finished their supper, retired to the living room, and fall asleep. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

fall asleep falls asleep fell asleep falling asleep falled asleep

22. His apartment had been illegally searched, the defendant was convicted. (A) His apartment had been illegally searched, the defendant was convicted. (B) Although his apartment had been illegally searched, the defendant was convicted. (C) Although his apartment has been illegally searched. The defendant was convicted. (D) His apartment had been illegally searched the defendant was convicted. (E) Although his apartment, had been improperly gathered, the defendant was convicted.

practice test

Each of the following sentences is either underlined or contains an underlined part. Under each sentence, there are five ways of phrasing the underlined portion. Choice (A) repeats the original; the other four options are different. You can assume that the elements that are not underlined are correct.

..........................................................................................

Directions: The sentences below test correctness and effectiveness of expression. When you choose your answers, select the sentence or sentence part that is most clear and correct and that conforms best to the requirements of standard written English.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

286

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

23. Mr. Arness felt it was time to remarry, but he could not decide whom to ask. (A) Mr. Arness felt it was time to remarry, but he could not decide whom to ask. (B) Mr. Arness felt it was time to remarry, he could not decide whom to ask. (C) Mr. Arness felt it was time to remarry he could not decide whom to ask. (D) Mr. Arness felt it was time. To remarry, but he could not decide whom to ask. (E) Mr. Arness felt it was time to remarry he could not decide, whom to ask. 24. John did not think his wife capable to be unfaithful. (A) think his wife unfaithful (B) think his wife unfaithful (C) think his wife unfaithful (D) think his wife unfaithful (E) think his wife unfaithful

www.petersons.com

capable to be capable of being capable for being capable as being capable by being

25. Jody’s boss ordered him to quit goofing off and return to his desk with an exasperated sigh. (A) Jody’s boss ordered him to quit goofing off and return to his desk with an exasperated sigh. (B) Jody’s boss ordered him to quit goofing off, with an exasperated sigh, and return to his desk. (C) Jody’s boss ordered him with an exasperated sigh. To quit goofing off and return to his desk. (D) With an exasperated sigh, Jody’s boss ordered him to quit goofing off and return to his desk. (E) Jody’s boss ordered him to, with an exasperated sigh, quit goofing off and return to his desk. 26. Sergeant Pepper was the most prettiest horse we ever had, yet he was also the meanest. (A) was the most prettiest horse we ever had, yet he was also the meanest (B) was the prettiest horse we ever had, yet he was also the meanest (C) was the prettiest horse we ever had, yet he was also the most meanly (D) was the pretty horse we ever had, yet he was also the most mean (E) was the prettiest horse we ever had, yet he was also the most meaner

Practice Test 3

287

.................................................................

28. Because the Academy Awards are based on and around the calendar year, many movie studios speed things up, rushing to release their movies at the end of the year, in December. (A) are based on and around the calendar year, many movie studios speed things up, rushing to release their movies at the end of the year, in December. (B) are based on the calendar year, many movie studios rush to release their movies in December. (C) are based on the calendar year, many film and movie studios hurry things along, rushing to release their movies in December. (D) have their basis on and around the calendar year, many movie studios rush to release their movies in December. (E) are based on the 12 months of the calendar year, many movie studios rush to release their movies in December.

(A) Ruben wrote a letter to his little brother once a week while he was in Spain. (B) When his little brother was in Spain, Ruben wrote a letter to him once a week. (C) When in Spain, a letter was written every day by Ruben to his little brother. (D) His little brother received a letter from Ruben once a week while he was in Spain. (E) Once a week while he was in Spain, a letter was written to his little brother by Ruben. 30. We have several errands to run before we can go to the movie: go to the bank, washing the car, and drop the dog off at the vet. (A) We have several errands to run before we can go to the movie: go to the bank, washing the car, and drop the dog off at the vet. (B) We have several errands to run before we can go to the movie: go to the bank, washing the car, and dropping the dog off at the vet. (C) Several errands have to be run before we can go to the movie: went to the bank, washed the car, and dropped the dog off at the vet. (D) Several errands have to be run before we went to the movie: go to the bank, wash the car, and drop the dog off at the vet. (E) We have several errands to run before we can go to the movie: go to the bank, wash the car, and drop the dog off at the vet.

practice test

(A) they should order anchovies on their pizza; moreover, Kyle disagreed. (B) they should order anchovies on their pizza; meanwhile, Kyle disagreed. (C) they should order anchovies on their pizza; however, Kyle disagreed. (D) they should order anchovies on their pizza; furthermore, Kyle disagreed. (E) they should order pizza, where Kyle disagreed.

29. Ruben wrote a letter to his little brother once a week while he was in Spain.

..........................................................................................

27. Raisa thought they should order anchovies on their pizza; moreover, Kyle disagreed.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

288

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

31. To prevent suffocating, keep plastic bags out of the reach of children. (A) To prevent suffocating, keep plastic bags out of the reach of children. (B) Suffocating can be prevented by keeping plastic bags out of the reach of children. (C) To prevent them from suffocating, plastic bags should be kept out of the reach of children. (D) To prevent children from suffocating, keep plastic bags out of their reach. (E) Plastic bags, to prevent the suffocating of children, should be kept out of reach. 32. Firecrackers in a roomful of children are more dangerous than grownups. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

than grownups than with grownups than one with grownups than them with grownups than firecrackers in a roomful of grownups

33. The Internet makes communication more convenient where also more risky. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

where also more risky but also more risky as also more risky because also more risky inasmuch as also more risky

www.petersons.com

Directions: The following passage is from an essay in its early stages. Some of it may need revision. Read the passage below and answer the questions that come after it. Some of the questions will ask you to improve sentence structure and word choice. Other questions will refer to parts of the essay or to the entire essay and ask you to improve organization and development. Base your decisions on the rules of standard written English, and mark your answer in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. QUESTIONS 34–39 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. (1) When an amateur gardener considers using “natural enemy” control of an infestation of aphids (that is, using another insect, rather than a chemical pesticide), chances are that gardener will think first of the ladybug. (2) However, there is another natural enemy of the aphid that some gardeners believe is even more effective than the ladybug. (3) Ladybugs are cute. (4) They are unbuglike to the max in the way they look and appear. (5) (The truth is, the ladybug can quite happily become a cannibal if food supplies are scarce.) (6) Lacewings also prey on spider mites, whiteflies, moths, leafminers, and small caterpillars. (7) This is the green lacewing fly, which is also known as the “aphid lion” because of its skill in hunting down and devouring aphids by the boxcarload! (8) In the meantime, they are an important predator of long-tailed mealybugs in greenhouses and interior plantscapes! (9) (In fact, some gardeners even regard the lacewing fly as prettier than the ladybug, because of its delicate, filmy wings and huge golden eyes.) (10) Although not as widely known as the ladybug, the green lacewing controls the same pests and is not as prone to fly away from the garden. (11) Lacewings can be purchased in the egg stage and will hatch into larvae in 3 to 5 days, or, for faster control, they can be purchased in the larvae stage, which is the stage at which they control pests. (12) The lacewing larvae look like tiny, flattened alligators and have hollow mandibles, with

Practice Test 3

289

.................................................................

Ladybugs are cute. They are unbuglike to the max in the way they look and appear. (The truth is, the ladybug can quite happily become a cannibal if food supplies are scarce.) (A) Ladybugs are cute. They are quite unbuglike in the way they look and appear. (Although the truth is (B) Perhaps this is because ladybugs are cute and quite unbuglike in the way they look and appear (although the truth is (C) Perhaps this is because ladybugs are cute and quite unbuglike in appearance. (Although the truth is (D) Perhaps this is because ladybugs are cute and quite unbuglike in appearance (although the truth is (E) Perhaps this is because ladybugs are cute and quite unbuglike (although the truth is

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

sentence sentence sentence sentence sentence

2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

36. Which of the following sentences is LEAST relevant to the topic of paragraph 2? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Sentence Sentence Sentence Sentence Sentence

10 11 12 13 14

37. Which of the following would make the best replacement for the underlined phrase in sentence 8, reproduced below. In the meantime, they are an important predator of long-tailed mealybugs in greenhouses and interior plantscapes! (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

In addition, they are Hence, they are Conversely, they are In short, they are Then, they are

38. Which of the following is the most likely intended audience for the paper? (A) High school students studying insect anatomy (B) Biologists performing insect learning experiments (C) Potential buyers of ladybugs (D) Potential buyers of lacewings (E) Naturalists studying the habits of insects

practice test

34. Which of the following is the best way to revise and combine the underlined parts of sentences 3, 4, and 5 reproduced below?

35. Paragraph 1 of the essay would be more coherent if sentence 7 were placed after

..........................................................................................

which they pierce their prey and suck out body fluids. (13) Many other garden predators control pests in the larvae stage. (14) After 14 to 21 days the lacewing larvae pupates into a cocoon for about 14 days and emerges as an adult. (15) Adults feed on nectar, pollen, and honeydew to stimulate their reproductive process. (16) An adult female will lay about 200 eggs, making it easy to get a colony of lacewing going in the garden. (17) The larvae will emerge in about 5 days and aggressively devour aphids and other garden pests.

➡

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

www.petersons.com

290

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

39. Given the overall purpose of the paper, the most likely intent of sentence 5 is to (A) stimulate interest in the ladybug equal to that of the lacewing. (B) attract the attention of research entomologists. (C) attract the attention of amateur naturalists. (D) make the ladybug less appealing as a competitor of the lacewing. (E) stimulate the interest of gardeners who might be using pesticides.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 3

291

.................................................................

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A D B D E

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

A D C B E

11. B 12. D 13. D 14. E 15. C

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

A B B C B

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

A E A C D

1. The correct answer is (A). This is a definition sentence. Both words in choice (A) are positive words, as are the words in the sentence itself. The words in the other sets contradict one another. 2. The correct answer is (D). This is a definition sentence. Focus is necessary for precision and clarity in writing. Choices (A) and (C) make no sense in context and can be discarded immediately. To be bold, choice (B), is not necessarily to be precise and clear. There is no way for an editor to make a writer talented, choice (E).

4. The correct answer is (D). This is a cause-and-effect sentence. Ask yourself, “Among the choices, which is the most logical reason for tracking hikers in a forest?” 5. The correct answer is (E). This is a definition sentence. All the other choices may be true of (some) flowers, but in the context of nutritious, the word edible makes most sense. (Again, remember that you are looking for the best and most logical answer, not just a possible one.) 6. The correct answer is (A). The excerpt from the poem expresses the way the Cat (representing nature) expresses reverence (worships) toward the Living God. Choice (B) is incorrect because the author’s comments about the poem would still be comprehensible without the lines. Choice (C) is incorrect because the passage is about Smart’s feelings, not about the author’s. Choice (D) is incorrect because the author’s own opinions about Smart’s sanity are not directly expressed. Choice (E) is incorrect because, although Smart’s love for his cat was probably real, it is not discussed in the passage. 7. The correct answer is (D). The phrase so-called is commonly used to negate whatever comes after it (e.g., a “so-called good man” probably isn’t). The whole passage implies that Smart was an extraordinary poet, not simply a lunatic. The other answers are not reflected in the passage.

www.petersons.com

practice test 3

3. The correct answer is (B). This is a comparison/contrast sentence. Ask yourself, “What is the opposite of having everything spelled out?” The first words in choices (A), (B), and (C) may all seem plausible, but when you reach the second word in each set, imagination will probably catch your eye. To conjure is to summon, and it also has the connotation of magic, which fits with the word imagination.

answers

Section 1

..........................................................................................

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS

292

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

8. The correct answer is (C). The passage calls the poem a meditation on the divine, and the poem itself speaks of the cat’s duly and daily serving God. The other choices are not mentioned in the passage. 9. The correct answer is (B). The passage states that the Devil’s Advocate’s role is to counter (that is, to argue against) the group’s decision. Choice (A) is wrong because one can argue against something without necessarily reviling it. Choices (C), (D), and (E) are wrong because the passage does not suggest that the Devil’s Advocate is there to agree with, nullify, or speed up the group’s decision. 10. The correct answer is (E). The passage makes it clear that Groupthink causes conformity. The other choices are not mentioned in the passage. 11. The correct answer is (B). Choice (B) is the only one that satisfies the criteria for Groupthink discussed in the passage: Each group member conforms, though secretly disagreeing, and a bad decision results. Choices (A) and (E) are wrong because no one secretly disagrees at the time the decisions are made. Choices (C) and (D) are wrong because the members do not conform out of desire for consensus, but out of duty in the first case, and out of fear in the second. 12. The correct answer is (D). Reread the example of Mr. Place. This is a good passage on which to practice making inferences, because, although the message of the passage is serious, it’s delivered with humor, and the author doesn’t always say directly what he means. 13. The correct answer is (D). To vitiate is to spoil. Note the word abort in the same sentence. 14. The correct answer is (E). The phrase is used literally here, with holiest meaning “highest.” 15. The correct answer is (C). Remember to look first at the ideas or examples immediately preceding and following the segment in question. In lines 28–32 (which follow the statement), the author gives the example of the Place children’s relationship with their father: the children learned (apparently, at least in Francis’s case, without bitterness) to keep out of their father’s way. 16. The correct answer is (A). The passage makes it clear that Francis’s father did not care enough about his children to try to influence their thinking. 17. The correct answer is (B). Note the phrases But as compared with (lines 48–49) and compared to (line 59). Also, a careful read-through will rule out the other choices. Choice (E) is wrong because there is no hint of bitterness in the essay. 18. The correct answer is (B). In the context of the entire essay, it is apparent that the author does not believe Mr. Place has the remotest connection with Providence. He is exaggerating to make a point. 19. The correct answer is (C). This choice fits in with the light tone of the whole essay, which rules out the sobering choices of (A), (B), and (E). The author doesn’t seem, in general, to think parents necessarily know best, choice (D), so choice (C) is the most logical choice.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 3

293

.................................................................

22. The correct answer is (E). The other choices are either not mentioned or are contradicted in the paragraph 23. The correct answer is (A). See lines 5–8. The other choices are not reflected in paragraph 1. 24. The correct answer is (C). The entire paragraph deals with the geographical diversity of wetlands. 25. The correct answer is (D). See the first sentence of the paragraph.

Section 2 1. 2. 3. 4.

E A C B

5. 6. 7. 8.

A D C E

9. E 10. D 11. E 12. B

13. 14. 15. 16.

B A D D

17. 18. 19. 20.

E D C E

2. The correct answer is (A). Supplementary angles are those that, when measured together, form a 180° angle. An obtuse angle has an angle measure greater than 90° but less than 180°. Because a and b are supplementary, we know that a 1 b 5 180°, which means a 5 180° 2 b. Since b . 90°, it follows that 180° 2 b , 90°, or a , 90°. Therefore, a , b. 3. The correct answer is (C). Since 3y 5 z 2 x ~z 2 x! y5 3 or 1 y 5 ~z 2 x! 3

www.petersons.com

practice test 3

1. The correct answer is (E). If you remember to Please Excuse My Dear Aunt Sally, it will help you perform operations in the right order, which are: Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication, Division, Addition, and Subtraction. This means we must add the 7 1 1 first, since they are enclosed within parentheses, then multiply by 4, and finally subtract 6, to get the answer 26.

answers

21. The correct answer is (A). Choices (B), (C), and (E) are too narrow to be the main idea. Environmentalists, choice (D), are not mentioned in the paragraph.

..........................................................................................

20. The correct answer is (B). Throughout the essay, the author advocates treating children in a straightforward, nonpatronizing manner, which implies that he respects them.

294

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

4. The correct answer is (B). The dimensions of the rectangular solid are: Length 6 (L) 5 8, Width (W) 5 6, Height (H) 5 one half its width 5 5 3. Now plug these values 2 into the formula for volume of a rectangular solid to find the answer:

V 5 L 3 W 3 H 5 3 3 6 3 8 5 144 cubic inches 5. The correct answer is (A). As the cross-sectional diagram below shows, the wall thickness is one half of the difference in the two diameters.

Subtract .625, the inner diameter, from the outer diameter .750, to get the difference in diameters, .125. Remember, .125 is the thickness of both walls. The question asks us to find the thickness of one wall, so you must divide .125 by 2 to get the right answer, .0625. 6. The correct answer is (D). To solve this problem, first, translate the words into algebraic form, then solve for the price, P. The pants sells for $6 more than 75% of the price, which can be restated as: P 5 6 1 .75P P 2 .75P 5 6 P~1 2 .75! 5 6 .25P 5 6 6 P5 .25 P 5 24 7. The correct answer is (C). The sum of the angles of a triangle is 180°. Since we know the measures of two of the angles, we can compute the measure of the third: 180° 2 60° 2 90° 5 a 120° 2 90° 5 a 30° 5 a

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 3

295

.................................................................

9. The correct answer is (E). For (a 3 b) to be less than zero, either a or b (but not both a and b) must be less than zero. All the other choices result in values that are either zero or greater than zero. 10. The correct answer is (D). This problem can be solved easily using the method of similar triangles. Both the flag pole and the fence post form a right angle with the surface of the earth and the sun’s rays strike both objects at the same angle, therefore we have two similar triangles. To solve a similar triangle problem, set up a proportion.

4 x

5

4

60 10 10x 5 240 x 5 24 11. The correct answer is (E). To solve this problem, plug in the values for x, y, and z, then simplify. 5

5

S S

9x3 2

DS D DS D SD

z2

y

2

11

~9!~21!3 2

5 ~29 2 2!

5

22

1

2

11

1

11

211 11

5 21 www.petersons.com

practice test 3

x

answers

90 ~5! 5 ~50!? 100 100 [~90!~50!! 5x 5 100 100 [~100!~4500!! 5x 5 100 5x 5 4500 x 5 900 x

..........................................................................................

8. The correct answer is (E). To figure this one out, translate the words into an equation, then solve for x. What % of 5 is 90% of 50 becomes

296

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

12. The correct answer is (B). This is false because P and Q are supplementary angles and cannot be equal because they cannot be 90°. The other choices are all true because they are vertical angles, choices (A) and (E), alternate interior angles, choice (C), or corresponding angles, choice (D). 13. The correct answer is (B). Solve this one by translating the word into an algebraic relationship. We know the coins are only nickels or dimes. Of the 11 coins, we are asked to find x, the number of dimes. This means there are x dimes and (11 2 x) nickels. Now translate this information into algebraic form: .65 5 (value of a dime)(number of dimes) 1 (value of a nickel) (number of nickels) 5 ~.10!x 1 ~.05!~11 2 x! 5 .10x 1 .55 2 .05x 5 ~.10 2 .05!x 1 .55 5 .05x 1 .55 .05x 5 .65 2 .55 .10 x5 .05 x52 14. The correct answer is (A). To solve this one, translate the words into an equation, then solve for x. What percent of two gallons is a quart or (x%)(2 gallons) 5 1 quart Next, convert gallons to quarts so the units match: 2 gallons 5 8 quarts. ~x%!~8 quarts! 5 1 quart x ~8! 5 1 100 8x 5 100 x 5 12.5

S D

15. The correct answer is (D). To solve this problem quickly, recognize that m∠CAD 5 m∠EAD, one angle of the triangle AED. If we can find the measure of ∠ADE and ∠AED, we can subtract them from 180° to find ∠EAD. We are given the measure of 1 ∠ADE in another form, as arc AB 5 40°. m∠ADE 5 AB, which is 20°. To find m∠AED, 2 notice that it is a supplementary angle to ∠CED 5 60°. This means m∠AED 5 180° 2 60° 5 120°. Now we can solve for m∠EAD 5 m∠CAD. m∠CAD 5 180° 2 20° 2 120° m∠CAD 5 40°

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 3

297

.................................................................

17. The correct answer is (E). Solve this problem by setting up an equation, solving for ∠B, then solving for ∠C. m∠A 1 m∠B 1 m∠C 5 180° 6m∠B 1 m∠B 1 2m∠B 5 180° 9m∠B 5 180° m∠B 5 20° Remember, the question asks us to find ∠C! m∠C 5 2m∠B 5 (2)(20°) 5 40° 18. The correct answer is (D).

19. The correct answer is (C). As the diagram below shows, before we can find the area, we must find the height of the triangle (x).

x

Solve for x using the Pythagorean Theorem: x2 1 ~8=2!2 5 ~18!2 x2 5 ~18!2 2 ~8=2!2 x2 5 324 2 128 x2 5 196 x 5 14

www.petersons.com

practice test 3

ab ab 1 1 2cb 5 ~ad 2 cb! 1 ~ad 2 cb! 1 2cb cd cd 5 ad 2 cb 1 ad 2 cb 1 2cb 5 2ad 2 2cb 1 2cb 5 2ad

answers

P 2 .30P 5 420 ~1 2 .30!P 5 420 .70P 5 420 420 P5 .70 P 5 600

..........................................................................................

16. The correct answer is (D). First, we must translate the words into an algebraic equation. Since the shopper pays 30% less than the original price (P), the equation is:

298

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Now, find the area of the triangle using the formula for area of a triangle: A5

1 2

base 3 height

SD 1

~ 8=2!~14! 2 5~7!~8=2! 5 56=2 5

20. The correct answer is (E). Solve this problem in two steps. First, solve for a in the first equation: a 1 b 5 27 a 5 27 2 b Second, plug this value for a into the second expression: 3c 2 a 5 0 3c 2 ~27 2 b! 5 0 3c 5 27 2 b b c592 3

Section 3 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

C B B C A D

7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

E A D C A B

13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

E B A C A

18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

B C C C B

23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

C D A C D

1. The correct answer is (C). The purpose of anesthesia is to ease discomfort. Remember to read all the choices. Be careful not to choose a word that is similar to the one that logically fits, but wrong—in this case, choice (A), discomfiture, which means embarrassment. If you’re not sure what the other choices mean, it would be a good idea to look them up now. 2. The correct answer is (B). In this question, it’s likely you can rule out all the wrong choices pretty rapidly! Can you see why? 3. The correct answer is (B). This word, which means to give support to, is the only choice that makes sense in the context of the sentence. 4. The correct answer is (C). Toothbrushing is logically related to hygiene. Choices (A) and (B) have nothing to do with tooth care. Choices (D) and (E) are services performed by a dentist but are unrelated to toothbrushing.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 3

299

.................................................................

7. The correct answer is (E). The other choices, while perhaps true of iguanas, have nothing to do with avoiding pet hair due to allergies. Always make sure you consider the context of the sentence. 8. The correct answer is (A). This is a cause-and-effect sentence. Ask yourself, “What would prompt a conservative doctor to use a perhaps unorthodox treatment?” The logical answer to this question rules out choices (B), (C), and (E). Of the two choices left, the combination of words that makes more sense is choice (A). 9. The correct answer is (D). The question has the effect of making the reader want to know the answer. Choice (A) is wrong because the question has no information in it. Choices (B) and (E) are wrong because there is nothing unpleasant in the question that would goad or disturb the reader. Choice (C) is wrong because the question is rhetorical, and therefore not meant to be answered by the reader. 10. The correct answer is (C). The passage says that Phileas Fogg was not avaricious; this is followed by the suggestion that he was often generous. The other choices are not supported by the passage.

12. The correct answer is (B). Paine considers the teachings of all organized churches human inventions, implying that he does not regard any as divinely inspired. Choices (A) and (C) are wrong because he condemns all organized churches, not just those of “foreign” cultures; also he does not discuss other religions in terms of a belief in one god. Choice (D) is wrong because he does not express approval of any national church, implying he sees no good in any of them. Choice (E) is wrong because, although Paine implies his own beliefs are private, he does not say they are unique. 13. The correct answer is (E). One of the denotations of the word invention is fabrication, which also has the connotation of falsehood—this fits best with the sentiment expressed. 14. The correct answer is (B). To stow away in someone else’s luggage would be an adventure. Choice (C) is wrong because, although stowing away is illegal, it is not necessarily injurious to another person as fraud would be. The other choices do not make sense in the context.

www.petersons.com

practice test 3

11. The correct answer is (A). The words terrify, enslave, and monopolize are harshly accusatory words that denounce organized religion. Choice (C) has a positive connotation; choices (B), (D), and (E) imply a neutral stance.

answers

6. The correct answer is (D). This is a definition question. The first segment of the sentence gives you a clue that you are looking for a word closely related to privacy. Confidential fits perfectly.

..........................................................................................

5. The correct answer is (A). Remembering that the prefix in- means “not” may help with this question. Therefore inappropriate means “not appropriate.”

300

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

15. The correct answer is (A). Sheltered is the only choice that has a positive (benign) connotation. The other choices might apply to a prison, but not to a benign prison. 16. The correct answer is (C). See lines 8–10. The other devices are not used in the paragraph. 17. The correct answer is (A). See lines 33–34. The other choices are not in the paragraph. 18. The correct answer is (B). Notice the phrase but they retain later in the same sentence—you’ll be looking for a word that contrasts with that phrase. Choice (B) is the only one. 19. The correct answer is (C). This is implied by the word accountability. The other choices are not found in this paragraph. 20. The correct answer is (C). The others are civil and political rights. 21. The correct answer is (C). If there are footnotes with the passage, always be sure to read them. 22. The correct answer is (B). This is the meaning of the word “universal.” That word is repeated throughout the document. The other choices are restrictions that do not exist in the document. 23. The correct answer is (C). Again, the Declaration is intended to deal with universal rights and is based on the idea that people have certain rights simply by virtue of being human. 24. The correct answer is (D). The point of the two articles is that all people have the right to legal remedy. 25. The correct answer is (A). See lines 62–64, which speak of equal rights as to marriage, during marriage, and at its dissolution. 26. The correct answer is (C). Both passages make it clear that all people, regardless of status, have basic rights by virtue of being human, and that these rights are clear and can be neither bought nor relinquished. 27. The correct answer is (D). Article 16 covers various aspects of marriage, which fits under the heading of social and cultural rights.

Section 4 1. 2. 3. 4.

D C B A

www.petersons.com

5. 6. 7. 8.

A D B A

9. D 10. B 11. 82.81 12. .325

13. 14. 15. 16.

60 17.86 feet .75 16 bags

17. 18. 19. 20.

3 hours 15 0.02 20 buckets

Practice Test 3

301

.................................................................

1

1 6423

1 5

3

1

42

1

643 1

5

1

1

=

~ 4!3 1 1 5 31 2 4 1 1 5 1 8 4 3 5 8

1 3

=64

2. The correct answer is (C). Figure this one out by solving for x. 4x 1 3y 5 12 1 3y 4x 5 12 1 3y 2 3y 4x 5 12 x53 3 Since 3 can also be expressed as , choice (C) is the correct answer. 1

4. The correct answer is (A). Since the total of all angles of the triangle must equal 180°, we know that ∠PQR 1 45° 1 90° 5 180°, or ∠PQR 5 180° 2 135° 5 45°. This means ∠PQR 5 ∠QPR, and since the sides opposite equal angles have equal lengths, we can conclude that PR 5 QR 5 5. This solution can also be derived by identifying the triangle as an isosceles right triangle, in which case the length of the two legs must be of equal length. 5. The correct answer is (A). You can solve this by multiplying the exponents together: 1

S DS D 5 x

~x2!2 5 x

2 1

1 2

2 2

5 x1 5 6

Or, by converting the expression into its equivalent radical expression, you have: Now it is easy to see that the answer is just x 5 6.

=x2.

6. The correct answer is (D). Substituting 2 for y, the expression becomes: 4 1 4x 5 24 or 4x 5 20, which simplifies to x 5 5.

www.petersons.com

practice test 3

3. The correct answer is (B). We find the probability of a successful outcome—that the dart will land inside the inner square—by comparing the area of the inner square to the area of the outer square. The inner square has an area of 2 3 2 5 4 sq. ft. The outer square has an area of 6 3 6 5 36 sq. ft. So, the probability that the dart will land inside 1 4 the inner square is , or . 36 9

answers

3 422

..........................................................................................

1. The correct answer is (D). Tackle this problem by simplifying it one step at a time. First, eliminate the negative exponents, then convert the rational exponents to their equivalent radical forms. Finally, simplify the expression to find the answer.

302

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

7. The correct answer is (B). If you recognize the triangle as a 30°–60°–90° triangle, you know that b 5 60°. Now, a and b are supplementary angles, so a 1 b 5 180°, or a 5 180° 2 60° 5 120°. 8. The correct answer is (A). Solve this problem by renaming fractions as decimals. This problem is a snap if you use your calculator. Or, you can work it out as follows: 1

1 .04

5

S D S D 4

100

100

513

4

5 25 9. The correct answer is (D). Solve this problem by creating a formula, a mathematical model, that uses a variable to represent the unknown quantity. Since we are asked to find the number of miles we can drive, let’s make x 5 number of miles. We know that the total number of dollars we have budgeted for this trip is $400. We also know that the components of this total are $220 for the weekly rental plus 40 cents for every mile we drive. Our next step is to translate these words into a mathematical model, or equation, then solve for x. 220 1 0.40x 5 400 0.40x 5 400 2 220 0.40x 5 180 180 x5 0.40 x 5 450 10. The correct answer is (B). Since one-third of a three-mile trail is 1 mile, which takes one hour, it takes 1 hour, or 60 minutes, to walk 1 mile. 11. The correct answer is 82.81. If you know your decimal equivalences by heart, you can rapidly solve this one by renaming the fractions as decimals: 2 2 2 1 1 18 10 5 4 5 .2 1 .4 1 .5 1 8 5 1.1 1 8 5 9.1

x5

But wait, we are asked to find x2. The correct answer is (9.1)2 5 82.81. 12. The correct answer is .325. Rewriting the radical expressions and simplifying, we have: x5

Î Î 1

64

1

www.petersons.com

1

25

5

=1 1 =1 5 1 1 1 5 .125 1 .2 5 .325 =64 =25 8 5

Practice Test 3

303

.................................................................

9 5 .15x 9 x5 .15 x 5 60 14. The correct answer is 17.86 feet. As the following diagram shows, this problem can easily be solved using the Pythagorean Theorem, a2 1 b2 5 c2.

h

We want to solve for h, and the equation is:

15. The correct answer is .75. The expression is equal to: 6 10 2 6

1

2 3 6

1

5

10 2

5

10

1 5

2

1

4

2

6

6

3

5

S DS D 1

3

2

2

5

3 4

5 .75

16. The correct answer is 16 bags. To solve this one, divide the total weight by the unit weight to find the number of units: 1000 60

' 16.67

Round down to 16 for your answer because the question asks us to find the number of full bags the truck can carry without going over 1,000 lbs.

www.petersons.com

practice test 3

h2 1 92 5 202 h2 5 202 292 h2 5 400 2 81 h2 5 319 h 5 =319 h 5 17.86 ft.

answers

9 5 15% of x or

..........................................................................................

13. The correct answer is 60. Translating the words into algebraic form gives us the following equation:

304

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

17. The correct answer is 3 hours. A rate of 25 miles in 20 minutes is equivalent to 75 mph. Use the formula, Distance 5 Rate 3 Time, to solve this problem. We know the distance (D) and the Rate (R), and we want to solve for time (T). D 5 RT 225 5 75T 225 T5 75 T 5 3 hours 18. The correct answer is 15. Since ∠AED and ∠BEC are vertical angles, they are equal, which means we have similar triangles. Set up a proportion that relates the sides of one triangle to the sides of the other, then solve for length AD. BE DE

5

BC

⇒

16

AD 24 ~16!~AD! 5 ~10!~24! 240 AD 5 16 AD 5 15

5

10 AD

19. The correct answer is 0.02. Use your calculator here to speed things up. Or, you can calculate it manually as follows: 0.64 8

2

0.36 6

5

~6!~0.64! 2 ~8!~0.36! 48

5

3.84 2 2.88 48

5

0.96 48

5 0.02

20. The correct answer is 20 buckets. The number of buckets is at a maximum when the weight per bucket is at a minimum, therefore we should choose 12 pounds as the number to divide into 240. The algebraic relationship is as follows: Total weight 5 ~bucket weight! 3 ~number of buckets! 240 5 12 3 ~number of buckets! 240 5 number of buckets 12 20 5 number of buckets It will take a maximum of 20 buckets to fill the container to a net weight of 240 pounds.

Section 5 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

C C C D D D B D

www.petersons.com

9. D 10. E 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. D

17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

E C E A C B A B

25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.

D B C B B E D

32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39.

E B D A D A D D

Practice Test 3

305

.................................................................

3. The correct answer is (C). There is a shift in tense from past (stood) to present (won’t). 4. The correct answer is (D). The error is that of a shift in person from third (one) to second (you). 5. The correct answer is (D). Items in a series should be grammatically parallel. A third noun, poverty, is needed to balance the nouns hunger and disease. 6. The correct answer is (D). The error is that of faulty use of a preposition (with). The correct wording would be participate in. 7. The correct answer is (B). The error is that of a misplaced modifier. The sentence appears to be saying that a slope is learning to ski. 8. The correct answer is (D). The error is one of misuse of the preposition onto. The wording should be seared into. 9. The correct answer is (D). The sentence has illogical construction. (An adverb clause is mixed with a predicate, but you do not have to know these terms. It is enough to know that “something is wrong” in the sentence and to correctly indicate where.)

11. The correct answer is (B). This segment contains a misplaced modifier. The constitutional right cannot arrest anyone; that is a job for the police. 12. The correct answer is (B). The error is in subject-verb agreement. The verb should be were, not was, to agree with the plural subject teachers. 13. The correct answer is (B). The error is one of a shift in tense from future (will not) to past (was mad). 14. The correct answer is (C). The error is a shift in tense from past (entered) to present (sniffs). The correct form of the verb is sniffed. 15. The correct answer is (B). The error here is the use of a nonstandard form of the pronoun himself. 16. The correct answer is (D). The error is in the use of an incorrect verb form (had drank). The correct form is had drunk. 17. The correct answer is (E). The sentence is correctly written. Don’t be misled by the plural noun (officers) that comes between the singular subject (The company president) and the verb (has). 18. The correct answer is (C). The error here is a shift in tense from present (pitches and speeds) to past (covered). www.petersons.com

practice test 3

10. The correct answer is (E). The sentence is written in standard English, with no errors.

answers

2. The correct answer is (C). The error is one of shift in tense, from past (was) to present (kicks).

..........................................................................................

1. The correct answer is (C). This is a subject-verb agreement mistake. The subject (errors) is plural; its verb (results) is singular.

306

PART IV: Two Practice Tests

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

19. The correct answer is (E). The sentence is correctly written. 20. The correct answer is (A). Choices (B) and (C) contain sentence fragments. Choice (D) erroneously places a comma between subject (The sting) and verb (went). Choice (E) erroneously places a comma between the preposition (except) and its object (for a brief moment). 21. The correct answer is (C). The word fell is in the past tense, as are finished and retired in the first part of the sentence. So this is the only sentence among the choices given that uses proper parallel structure. Choice (E) contains a nonstandard form of the verb fall (falled), as well. 22. The correct answer is (B). Choices (A) and (D) are run-on sentences; choice (C) contains a sentence fragment. Choice (E) improperly places a comma between the subject and verb. 23. The correct answer is (A). This is a complete sentence. Choice (B) is a comma splice, choice (C) is a run-on sentence, choice (D) contains a sentence fragment, and choice (E) shows a comma between the verb decide and its object whom. 24. The correct answer is (B). This is the only choice that uses the correct prepositional phrase (capable of being). 25. The correct answer is (D). The modifier with an exasperated sigh should be placed next to Jody’s boss. In addition, choice (C) contains a sentence fragment. 26. The correct answer is (B). This choice is the only one that uses the correct forms of the adjectives pretty and mean. 27. The correct answer is (C). The word however is the clearest and most logical transitional word between the two clauses. 28. The correct answer is (B). It is the least redundant and wordy sentence of the five. 29. The correct answer is (B). In the other choices, the pronoun reference is ambiguous—who’s in Spain? Choices (C) and (E) also contain misplaced modifiers: While he was in Spain, which seems to refer to a letter, rather than a person. 30. The correct answer is (E). It is the clearest and makes effective and consistent use of parallel structure. All the other choices misuse verb tenses. 31. The correct answer is (D). The words in the sentence are in logical order. Choices (A) and (B) are ambiguous—both imply that children might be using plastic bags to suffocate someone. Choice (C) contains a misplaced modifier—the plastic bags seem in danger of suffocating. Choice (E) hints that a person might suffocate children if the plastic bag is not kept out of that person’s reach. 32. The correct answer is (E). The error in the other sentences is that of incomplete comparison. 33. The correct answer is (B). This sentence contains the most logical subordinating conjunction, but.

www.petersons.com

Practice Test 3

307

.................................................................

36. The correct answer is (D). The characteristics of other garden predators are irrelevant to the paragraph, which is all about lacewings. 37. The correct answer is (A). Of the choices, this is the only logical transition. The others do not denote an additional function of the lacewing. 38. The correct answer is (D). The reader can infer that sentences 2, 6, 8, 16, and 17, in particular, advertise the lacewing as a predator of garden pests. 39. The correct answer is (D). The paper appears to be an advertisement in which the ladybug is featured as a competitor of the lacewing.

practice test 3

www.petersons.com

answers

35. The correct answer is (A). The pronoun This most logically refers to another natural enemy of the aphid . . . more effective than the ladybug.

..........................................................................................

34. The correct answer is (D). This version has eliminated the cliché to the max, the choppiness and redundancy, and the grammatical error in the parentheses. Perhaps this is because also provides a smooth transition.

........................................................

APPENDIXES

...................................................................

APPENDIX A The PSAT/NMSQT Word List APPENDIX B All About the SAT

The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

.............................................................................

Vocabulary as such is not tested on the PSAT/NMSQT. But there are plenty of indirect and hidden vocabulary questions on the PSAT/NMSQT: 1. Reading comprehension passages include vocabulary-in-context questions. These focus on particular words in the passage and ask you to determine their meaning in the passage. Sometimes the words chosen are obviously hard words (latent, replete, and eminent, to name three real examples). More often they are seemingly easy words that are tricky because they have many possible meanings (camp, idea, and hard, for example). In both cases, the broader, more varied, and more accurate your vocabulary knowledge, the better your chances of answering these questions quickly and correctly. 2. The better your vocabulary knowledge, the easier you’ll find it to understand both critical reading passages and sentence completion items (which are, in effect, mini-reading passages, each one sentence long). Even an occasional math item is made a little more complicated by the use of a challenging vocabulary word. So vocabulary knowledge makes a clear and significant difference in your performance on the SAT. Fortunately, the kinds of words that regularly appear fall into definite patterns. The PSAT/NSMQT is written and edited by bookish people for the benefit of the other bookish people who run colleges and universities. The exam is designed to test your ability to handle the kinds of bookish tasks college students usually have to master: reading textbooks, finding information in reference books, deciphering scholarly journals, studying research abstracts, and writing impressive-sounding term papers. So the hard words on the tests are hard words of a particular sort: bookish hard words that deal, broadly speaking, with the manipulation and communication of ideas—words like ambiguous, amplify, arbitrary, and arcane. The better you master this sort of vocabulary, the better you’ll do on your exam. Happily, you don’t need to find these words on your own. We’ve done the groundwork for you. We’ve been able to come up with a list of the words most

311

appendix a

USE THE WORDS YOU LEARN

312

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

commonly used in reading passages and sentence completions, including both the question stems and the answer choices. This list has become The PSAT/NMSQT Word List. It includes about 500 primary words that are most likely to appear in one form or another on the PSAT/NMSQT. It also includes hundreds of related words—words that are either variants of the primary words (ambiguity as a variant of ambiguous, for example) or that share a common word root (like ample, amplify, and amplitude). Many of these words have also been covered in “Words, Words, and More Words” in chapter 4.

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

313

.................................................................

abbreviate (verb) to make briefer, to shorten. Because time was running out, the speaker had to abbreviate his remarks. abbreviation (noun). abrasive (adjective) irritating, grinding, rough. The manager’s rude, abrasive way of criticizing the workers was bad for morale. abrasion (noun). abridge (verb) to shorten, to reduce. The Bill of Rights is designed to prevent Congress from abridging the rights of Americans. abridgment (noun). absolve (verb) to free from guilt, to exonerate. The criminal jury absolved the defendant of the crime and she was freed. absolution (noun). abstain (verb) to refrain, to hold back. After his heart attack, he was warned by the doctor to abstain from smoking, drinking, and overeating. abstinence (noun), abstemious (adjective). accentuate (verb) to emphasize, to stress. The overcast skies and chill winds accentuated our gloomy mood. accentuation (noun). acrimonious (adjective) biting, harsh, caustic. The election campaign became acrimonious, as the candidates traded insults and accusations. acrimony (noun). adaptable (adjective) able to be changed to be suitable for a new purpose. Some scientists say that the mammals outlived the dinosaurs because they were more adaptable to a changing climate. adapt (verb), adaptation (noun). adulation (noun) extreme admiration. Few young actors have received greater adulation than did Marlon Brando after his performance in A Streetcar Named Desire. adulate (verb), adulatory (adjective). adversary (noun) an enemy or opponent. When the former Soviet Union became an American ally, it was believed that the United States lost its last major adversary. adversity (noun) misfortune. It’s easy to be patient and generous when things are going well; a person’s true character is revealed under adversity. adverse (adjective). aesthetic (adjective) relating to art or beauty. Mapplethorpe’s photos may be attacked on moral grounds, but no one questions their aesthetic value—they are beautiful. aestheticism (noun). affected (adjective) false, artificial. At one time, Japanese women were taught to speak in an affected high-pitched voice, which was thought girlishly attractive. affect (verb), affectation (noun). aggressive (adjective) forceful, energetic, and attacking. Football fans believe that a football player needs a more aggressive style of play than a soccer player. aggression (noun). alacrity (noun) promptness, speed. Thrilled with the job offer, he accepted with alacrity—“Before they can change their minds!” he thought. allege (verb) to state without proof. Some have alleged that Foster was murdered, but all the evidence points to suicide. allegation (noun). www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

A

314

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

alleviate (verb) to make lighter or more bearable. Although no cure for AIDS has been found, doctors are able to alleviate the suffering of those with the disease. alleviation (noun).

ambiguous (adjective) having two or more possible meanings. The phrase, “Let’s table that discussion” is ambiguous; some think it means, “Let’s discuss it now,” while others think it means, “Let’s save it for later.” ambiguity (noun).

ambivalent (adjective) having two or more contradictory feelings or attitudes; uncertain. She was ambivalent toward her impending marriage; at times she was eager to go ahead, while at other times she wanted to call it off. ambivalence (noun). amiable (adjective) likable, agreeable, friendly. He was an amiable lab partner, always smiling, on time, and ready to work. amiability (verb).

amicable (adjective) friendly, peaceable. Although they agreed to divorce, their settlement was amicable and they remained friends afterward. amplify (verb) to enlarge, expand, or increase. Uncertain as to whether they understood, the students asked the teacher to amplify his explanation. amplification (noun). anachronistic (adjective) out of the proper time. The reference, in Shakespeare’s Julius Caesar, to “the clock striking twelve” is anachronistic, since there were no striking timepieces in ancient Rome. anachronism (noun).

anarchy (noun) absence of law or order. For several months after the Nazi government was destroyed, there was no effective government in parts of Germany, and anarchy ruled. anarchic (adjective).

anomaly (noun) something different or irregular. Tiny Pluto, orbiting next to the planets Jupiter, Saturn, and Neptune, has long appeared to be an anomaly. anomalous (adjective). antagonism (noun) hostility, conflict, opposition. As more and more reporters investigated the Watergate scandal, antagonism between Nixon and the press increased. antagonistic (adjective), antagonize (verb).

antiseptic (adjective) fighting infection; extremely clean. A wound should be washed with an antiseptic solution. The all-white offices were bare and almost antiseptic in their starkness. apathy (noun) lack of interest, concern, or emotion. American voters are showing increasing apathy over politics; fewer than half voted in the last election. apathetic (adjective).

arable (adjective) able to be cultivated for growing crops. Rocky New England has relatively little arable farmland.

arbiter (noun) someone able to settle dispute; a judge or referee. The public is the ultimate arbiter of commercial value; it decides what sells and what doesn’t.

arbitrary (adjective) based on random or merely personal preference. Both computers cost the same and had the same features, so in the end I made an arbitrary decision about which one to buy.

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

315

.................................................................

ardor (noun) a strong feeling of passion, energy, or zeal. The young revolutionary proclaimed his convictions with an ardor that excited the crowd. ardent (adjective). arid (adjective) very dry; boring and meaningless. The arid climate of Arizona makes farming difficult. Some find the law a fascinating topic, but for me it is an arid discipline. aridity (noun). ascetic (adjective) practicing strict self-discipline for moral or spiritual reasons. The so-called Desert Fathers were hermits who lived an ascetic life of fasting, study, and prayer. asceticism (verb). assiduous (verb) working with care, attention, and diligence. Although Karen is not a naturally gifted math student, by assiduous study she managed to earn an A in trigonometry. assiduity (noun). astute (adjective) observant, intelligent, and shrewd. Safire’s years of experience in Washington and his personal acquaintance with many political insiders make him an astute commentator on politics. atypical (adjective) not typical; unusual. In The Razor’s Edge, Bill Murray, best known as a comic actor, gave an atypical dramatic performance. audacious (adjective) bold, daring, adventurous. Her plan to cross the Atlantic singlehanded in a 12-foot sailboat was audacious, if not reckless. audacity (noun). audible (adjective) able to be heard. Although she whispered, her voice was picked up by the microphone, and her words were audible throughout the theater. audibility (noun). auspicious (adjective) promising good fortune; propitious. The news that a team of British climbers had reached the summit of Everest seemed an auspicious sign for the reign of newly crowned Queen Elizabeth II. authoritarian (adjective) favoring or demanding blind obedience to leaders. Despite Americans’ belief in democracy, the American government has supported authoritarian regimes in other countries. authoritarianism (noun)

B belated (adjective) delayed past the proper time. She called her mother on January 5th to offer her a belated “Happy New Year.” belie (verb) to present a false or contradictory appearance. Lena Horne’s youthful appearance belies her long, distinguished career in show business. benevolent (adjective) wishing or doing good. In old age, Carnegie used his wealth for benevolent purposes, donating large sums to found libraries and schools. benevolence (noun).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

arcane (adjective) little-known, mysterious, obscure. Eliot’s Waste Land is filled with arcane lore, including quotations in Latin, Greek, French, German, and Sanskrit. arcana (noun, plural).

316

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

berate (verb) to scold or criticize harshly. The judge angrily berated the two lawyers for their unprofessional behavior. bereft (adjective) lacking or deprived of something. Bereft of parental love, orphans sometimes grow up to be insecure.

bombastic (adjective) inflated or pompous in style. Old-fashioned bombastic political speeches don’t work on television, which demands a more intimate style of communication. bombast (noun).

bourgeois (adjective) middle-class or reflecting middle-class values. The Dadaists of the 1920s produced art deliberately designed to offend bourgeois art collectors, with their taste for respectable, refined, uncontroversial pictures. bourgeois (noun). buttress (noun) something that supports or strengthens. The endorsement of the American Medical Association is a powerful buttress for the claims made about this new medicine. buttress (verb).

C camaraderie (noun) a spirit of friendship. Spending long days and nights together on the road, the members of a traveling theater group develop a strong sense of camaraderie. candor (noun) openness, honesty, frankness. In his memoir about the Vietnam War, former defense secretary McNamara describes his mistakes with remarkable candor. candid (adjective). capricious (adjective) unpredictable, whimsical. The pop star Madonna has changed her image so many times that each new transformation now appears capricious rather than purposeful. caprice (noun).

carnivorous (adjective) meat-eating. The long, dagger-like teeth of the Tyrannosaurus make it obvious that this was a carnivorous dinosaur. carnivore (noun). carping (adjective) unfairly or excessively critical; querulous. New York is famous for its demanding critics, but none is harder to please than the carping John Simon, said to have single-handedly destroyed many acting careers. carp (verb). catalytic (adjective) bringing about, causing, or producing some result. The conditions for revolution existed in America by 1765; the disputes about taxation that arose later were the catalytic events that sparked the rebellion. catalyze (verb).

caustic (adjective) burning, corrosive. No one was safe when the satirist H. L. Mencken unleashed his caustic wit.

censure (noun) blame, condemnation. The news that a senior senator had harassed several women brought censure from many feminists. censure (verb).

chaos (noun) disorder, confusion, chance. The first few moments after the explosion were pure chaos: no one was sure what had happened, and the area was filled with people running and yelling. chaotic (adjective).

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

317

.................................................................

circumlocution (noun) speaking in a roundabout way; wordiness. Legal documents often contain circumlocutions which make them difficult to understand. circumscribe (verb) to define by a limit or boundary. Originally, the role of the executive branch of government was clearly circumscribed, but that role has greatly expanded over time. circumscription (noun). circumvent (verb) to get around. When Jerry was caught speeding, he tried to circumvent the law by offering the police officer a bribe. clandestine (adjective) secret, surreptitious. As a member of the underground, Balas took part in clandestine meetings to discuss ways of sabotaging the Nazi forces. cloying (adjective) overly sweet or sentimental. The deathbed scenes in the novels of Dickens are famously cloying: as Oscar Wilde said, “One would need a heart of stone to read the death of Little Nell without laughing.” cogent (adjective) forceful and convincing. The committee members were won over to the project by the cogent arguments of the chairman. cogency (noun). cognizant (adjective) aware, mindful. Cognizant of the fact that it was getting late, the master of ceremonies cut short the last speech. cognizance (noun). cohesive (adjective) sticking together, unified. An effective military unit must be a cohesive team, all its members working together for a common goal. cohere (verb), cohesion (noun). collaborate (verb) to work together. To create a truly successful movie, the director, writers, actors, and many others must collaborate closely. collaboration (noun), collaborative (adjective). colloquial (adjective) informal in language; conversational. Some expressions from Shakespeare, such as the use of thou and thee, sound formal today but were colloquial English in Shakespeare’s time. competent (adjective) having the skill and knowledge needed for a particular task; capable. Any competent lawyer can draw up a will. competence (noun). complacent (adjective) smug, self-satisfied. During the 1970s, American auto makers became complacent, believing that they would continue to be successful with little effort. complacency (noun). composure (noun) calm, self-assurance. The president managed to keep his composure during his speech even when the Teleprompter broke down, leaving him without a script. composed (adjective). conciliatory (adjective) seeking agreement, compromise, or reconciliation. As a conciliatory gesture, the union leaders agreed to postpone a strike and to continue negotiations with management. conciliate (verb), conciliation (noun).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

circuitous (adjective) winding or indirect. We drove to the cottage by a circuitous route so we could see as much of the surrounding countryside as possible.

318

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

concise (adjective) expressed briefly and simply; succinct. Less than a page long, the Bill of Rights is a concise statement of the freedoms enjoyed by all Americans. concision (noun).

condescending (adjective) having an attitude of superiority toward another; patronizing. “What a cute little car!” she remarked in a condescending style. “I suppose it’s the nicest one someone like you could afford!” condescension (noun).

condolence (noun) pity for someone else’s sorrow or loss; sympathy. After the sudden death of Princess Diana, thousands of messages of condolence were sent to her family. condole (verb).

confidant (noun) someone entrusted with another’s secrets. No one knew about Janee’s engagement except Sarah, her confidant. confide (verb), confidential (adjective). conformity (noun) agreement with or adherence to custom or rule. In my high school, conformity was the rule: everyone dressed the same, talked the same, and listened to the same music. conform (verb), conformist (adjective).

consensus (noun) general agreement among a group. Among Quakers, voting traditionally is not used; instead, discussion continues until the entire group forms a consensus. consolation (noun) relief or comfort in sorrow or suffering. Although we miss our dog very much, it is a consolation to know that she died quickly, without suffering. console (verb).

consternation (noun) shock, amazement, dismay. When a voice in the back of the church shouted out, “I know why they should not be married!” the entire gathering was thrown into consternation. consummate (verb) to complete, finish, or perfect. The deal was consummated with a handshake and the payment of the agreed-upon fee. consummate (adjective), consummation (noun).

contaminate (verb) to make impure. Chemicals dumped in a nearby forest had seeped into the soil and contaminated the local water supply. contamination (noun).

contemporary (adjective) modern, current; from the same time. I prefer old-fashioned furniture rather than contemporary styles. The composer Vivaldi was roughly contemporary with Bach. contemporary (noun). contrite (adjective) sorry for past misdeeds. The public is often willing to forgive celebrities who are involved in some scandal, as long as they appear contrite. contrition (noun).

conundrum (noun) a riddle, puzzle, or problem. The question of why an all-powerful, all-loving God allows evil to exist is a conundrum many philosophers have pondered.

convergence (noun) the act of coming together in unity or similarity. A remarkable example of evolutionary convergence can be seen in the shark and the dolphin, two sea creatures that developed from different origins to become very similar in form. converge (verb). convoluted (adjective) twisting, complicated, intricate. Tax law has become so convoluted that it’s easy for people to accidentally violate it. convolute (verb), convolution (noun).

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

319

.................................................................

corrosive (adjective) eating away, gnawing, or destroying. Years of poverty and hard work had a corrosive effect on her beauty. corrode (verb), corrosion (noun). credulity (noun) willingness to believe, even with little evidence. Con artists fool people by taking advantage of their credulity. credulous (adjective). criterion (noun) a standard of measurement or judgment. (The plural is criteria.) In choosing a design for the new taxicabs, reliability will be our main criterion. critique (noun) a critical evaluation. The editor gave a detailed critique of the manuscript, explaining its strengths and its weaknesses. critique (verb). culpable (adjective) deserving blame, guilty. Although he committed the crime, because he was mentally ill he should not be considered culpable for his actions. culpability (noun). cumulative (adjective) made up of successive additions. Smallpox was eliminated only through the cumulative efforts of several generations of doctors and scientists. accumulation (noun), accumulate (verb). curtail (verb) to shorten. Because of the military emergency, all soldiers on leave were ordered to curtail their absences and return to duty.

D debased (adjective) lowered in quality, character, or esteem. The quality of TV journalism has been debased by the many new tabloid-style talk shows. debase (verb). debunk (verb) to expose as false or worthless. Magician James Randi loves to debunk psychics, mediums, clairvoyants, and others who claim supernatural powers. decorous (adjective) having good taste; proper, appropriate. The once reserved and decorous style of the British monarchy began to change when the chic, flamboyant young Diana Spencer joined the family. decorum (noun). decry (verb) to criticize or condemn. Cigarette ads aimed at youngsters have led many to decry the marketing tactics of the tobacco industry. deduction (noun) a logical conclusion, especially a specific conclusion based on general principles. Based on what is known about the effects of greenhouse gases on atmospheric temperature, scientists have made several deductions about the likelihood of global warming. deduce (verb). delegate (verb) to give authority or responsibility. The president delegated the vice president to represent the administration at the peace talks. delegate (noun). deleterious (adjective) harmful. About thirty years ago, scientists proved that working with asbestos could be deleterious to one’s health, producing cancer and other diseases.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

corroborating (adjective) supporting with evidence; confirming. A passerby who had witnessed the crime gave corroborating testimony about the presence of the accused person. corroborate (verb), corroboration (noun).

320

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

delineate (verb) to outline or describe. Naturalists had long suspected the fact of evolution, but Darwin was the first to delineate a process—natural selection—through which evolution could occur.

demagogue (noun) a leader who plays dishonestly on the prejudices and emotions of his followers. Senator Joseph McCarthy was considered a demagogue who used the paranoia of the anti-Communist 1950s as a way of seizing fame and power in Washington. demagoguery (noun).

demure (adjective) modest or shy. The demure heroines of Victorian fiction have given way to today’s stronger, more opinionated, and more independent female characters. denigrate (verb) to criticize or belittle. The firm’s new president tried to explain his plans for improving the company without seeming to denigrate the work of his predecessor. denigration (noun).

depose (verb) to remove from office, especially from a throne. Iran was formerly ruled by a monarch called the Shah, who was deposed in 1976.

derelict (adjective) neglecting one’s duty. The train crash was blamed on a switchman who was derelict, having fallen asleep while on duty. dereliction (noun).

derivative (adjective) taken from a particular source. When a person first writes poetry, her poems are apt to be derivative of whatever poetry she most enjoys reading. derivation (noun), derive (verb).

desolate (adjective) empty, lifeless, and deserted; hopeless, gloomy. Robinson Crusoe was shipwrecked and had to learn to survive alone on a desolate island. The assassination of her husband left Mary Lincoln desolate. desolation (noun). destitute (adjective) very poor. Years of rule by a dictator who stole the wealth of the country had left the people of the Philippines destitute. destitution (noun).

deter (verb) to discourage from acting. The best way to deter crime is to insure that criminals will receive swift and certain punishment. deterrence (noun), deterrent (adjective).

detractor (noun) someone who belittles or disparages. Neil Diamond has many detractors who consider his music boring, inane, and sentimental. detract (verb). deviate (verb) to depart from a standard or norm. Having agreed upon a spending budget for the company, we mustn’t deviate from it; if we do, we may run out of money soon. deviation (noun). devious (adjective) tricky, deceptive. Milken’s devious financial tactics were designed to enrich his firm while confusing or misleading government regulators.

didactic (adjective) intended to teach, instructive. The children’s TV show Sesame Street is designed to be both entertaining and didactic.

diffident (adjective) hesitant, reserved, shy. Someone with a diffident personality should pursue a career that involves little public contact. diffidence (noun).

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

321

.................................................................

digress (verb) to wander from the main path or the main topic. My high school biology teacher loved to digress from science into personal anecdotes about his college adventures. digression (noun), digressive (adjective). dilatory (adjective) delaying, procrastinating. The lawyer used various dilatory tactics, hoping that his opponent would get tired of waiting for a trial and drop the case. diligent (adjective) working hard and steadily. Through diligent efforts, the townspeople were able to clear away the debris from the flood in a matter of days. diligence (noun). diminutive (adjective) unusually small, tiny. Children are fond of Shetland ponies because their diminutive size makes them easy to ride. diminution (noun). discern (verb) to detect, notice, or observe. I could discern the shape of a whale off the starboard bow, but it was too far away to determine its size or species. discernment (noun). disclose (verb) to make known; to reveal. Election laws require candidates to disclose the names of those who contribute money to their campaigns. disclosure (noun). discomfit (verb) to frustrate, thwart, or embarrass. Discomfited by the interviewer’s unexpected question, Peter could only stammer in reply. discomfiture (noun). disconcert (verb) to confuse or embarrass. When the hallway bells began to ring halfway through her lecture, the speaker was disconcerted and didn’t know what to do. discredit (verb) to cause disbelief in the accuracy of some statement or the reliability of a person. Although many people still believe in UFOs, among scientists the reports of “alien encounters” have been thoroughly discredited. discreet (adjective) showing good judgment in speech and behavior. Be discreet when discussing confidential business matters—don’t talk among strangers on the elevator, for example. discretion (noun). discrepancy (noun) a difference or variance between two or more things. The discrepancies between the two witnesses’ stories show that one of them must be lying. discrepant (adjective). disdain (noun) contempt, scorn. Millionaire Leona Helmsley was disliked by many people because she treated “little people” with such disdain. disdain (verb), disdainful (adjective). disingenuous (adjective) pretending to be candid, simple, and frank. When Texas billionaire H. Ross Perot ran for president, many considered his “jest plain folks” style disingenuous. disparage (verb) to speak disrespectfully about, to belittle. Many political ads today both praise their own candidate and disparage his or her opponent. disparagement (noun), disparaging (adjective).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

diffuse (verb) to spread out, to scatter. The red dye quickly became diffused through the water, turning it a very pale pink. diffusion (noun).

322

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

disparity (noun) difference in quality or kind. There is often a disparity between the kind of high-quality television people say they want and the low-brow programs they actually watch. disparate (adjective).

disregard (verb) to ignore, to neglect. If you don’t write a will, when you die, your survivors may disregard your wishes about how your property should be handled. disregard (noun).

disruptive (adjective) causing disorder, interrupting. When the senator spoke at our college, angry demonstrators picketed, heckled, and engaged in other disruptive activities. disrupt (verb), disruption (noun). dissemble (verb) to pretend, to simulate. When the police questioned her about the crime, she dissembled innocence. dissipate (verb) to spread out or scatter. The windows and doors were opened, allowing the smoke that had filled the room to dissipate. dissipation (noun). dissonance (noun) lack of music harmony; lack of agreement between ideas. Most modern music is characterized by dissonance, which many listeners find hard to enjoy. There is a noticeable dissonance between two common beliefs of most conservatives: their faith in unfettered free markets and their preference for traditional social values. dissonant (adjective).

diverge (verb) to move in different directions. Frost’s poem The Road Less Traveled tells of the choice he made when “Two roads diverged in a yellow wood.” divergence (noun), divergent (adjective). diversion (noun) a distraction or pastime. During the two hours he spent in the doctor’s waiting room, his hand-held computer game was a welcome diversion. divert (verb). divination (noun) the art of predicting the future. In ancient Greece, people wanting to know their fate would visit the priests at Delphi, supposedly skilled at divination. divine (verb).

divisive (adjective) causing disagreement or disunity. Throughout history, race has been the most divisive issue in American society. divulge (verb) to reveal. The people who count the votes for the Oscar awards are under strict orders not to divulge the names of the winners.

dogmatic (adjective) holding firmly to a particular set of beliefs with little or no basis. Believers in Marxist doctrine tend to be dogmatic, ignoring evidence that contradicts their beliefs. dogmatism (noun).

dominant (adjective) greatest in importance or power. Turner’s Frontier Thesis suggests that the existence of the frontier had a dominant influence on American culture. dominate (verb), domination (noun). dubious (adjective) doubtful, uncertain. Despite the chairman’s attempts to convince the committee members that his plan would succeed, most of them remained dubious. dubiety (noun).

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

323

.................................................................

duress (noun) compulsion or restraint. Fearing that the police might beat him, he confessed to the crime, not willingly but under duress.

E eclectic (adjective) drawn from many sources; varied, heterogeneous. The Mellon family art collection is an eclectic one, including works ranging from ancient Greek sculptures to modern paintings. eclecticism (noun). efficacious (adjective) able to produce a desired effect. Though thousands of people today are taking herbal supplements to treat depression, researchers have not yet proved them efficacious. efficacy (noun). effrontery (noun) shameless boldness. The sports world was shocked when a pro basketball player had the effrontery to choke his head coach during a practice session. effusive (adjective) pouring forth one’s emotions very freely. Having won the Oscar for Best Actress, Sally Field gave an effusive acceptance speech in which she marveled, “You like me! You really like me!” effusion (noun). egoism (noun) excessive concern with oneself; conceit. Robert’s egoism was so great that all he could talk about was the importance—and the brilliance—of his own opinions. egoistic (adjective). egregious (adjective) obvious, conspicuous, flagrant. It’s hard to imagine how the editor could allow such an egregious error to appear. elated (adjective) excited and happy; exultant. When the Green Bay Packers’ last, desperate pass was dropped, the elated fans of the Denver Broncos began to celebrate. elate (verb), elation (noun). elliptical (adjective) very terse or concise in writing or speech; difficult to understand. Rather than speak plainly, she hinted at her meaning through a series of nods, gestures, and elliptical half sentences. elusive (adjective) hard to capture, grasp, or understand. Though everyone thinks they know what “justice” is, when you try to define the concept precisely, it proves to be quite elusive. embezzle (verb) to steal money or property that has been entrusted to your care. The church treasurer was found to have embezzled thousands of dollars by writing phony checks on the church bank account. embezzlement (noun). emend (verb) to correct. Before the letter is mailed, please emend the two spelling errors. emendation (noun). emigrate (verb) to leave one place or country to settle elsewhere. Millions of Irish emigrated to the New World in the wake of the great Irish famines of the 1840s. emigrant (noun), emigration (noun).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

durable (adjective) long lasting. Denim is a popular material for work clothes because it is strong and durable.

324

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

eminent (adjective) noteworthy, famous. Vaclav Havel was an eminent author before being elected president of the Czech Republic. eminence (noun). emissary (noun) someone who represents another. In an effort to avoid a military showdown, Carter was sent as an emissary to Korea to negotiate a settlement. emollient (noun) something that softens or soothes. She used a hand cream as an emollient on her dry, work-roughened hands. emollient (adjective). empathy (noun) imaginative sharing of the feelings, thoughts, or experiences of another. It’s easy for a parent to have empathy for the sorrow of another parent whose child has died. empathetic (adjective).

empirical (adjective) based on experience or personal observation. Although many people believe in ESP, scientists have found no empirical evidence of its existence. empiricism (noun).

emulate (verb) to imitate or copy. The British band Oasis admitted their desire to emulate their idols, the Beatles. emulation (noun). encroach (verb) to go beyond acceptable limits; to trespass. By quietly seizing more and more authority, Robert Moses continually encroached on the powers of other government leaders. encroachment (noun). enervate (verb) to reduce the energy or strength of someone or something. The stress of the operation left her feeling enervated for about two weeks. engender (verb) to produce, to cause. Countless disagreements over the proper use of national forests have engendered feelings of hostility between ranchers and environmentalists. enhance (verb) to improve in value or quality. New kitchen appliances will enhance your house and increase the amount of money you’ll make when you sell it. enhancement (noun). enmity (noun) hatred, hostility, ill will. Long-standing enmity, like that between the Protestants and Catholics in Northern Ireland, is difficult to overcome.

enthrall (verb) to enchant or charm. When the Swedish singer Jenny Lind toured America in the nineteenth century, audiences were enthralled by her beauty and talent. ephemeral (adjective) quickly disappearing; transient. Stardom in pop music is ephemeral; most of the top acts of ten years ago are forgotten today. equanimity (noun) calmness of mind, especially under stress. Roosevelt had the gift of facing the great crises of his presidency—the Depression and the Second World War—with equanimity and even humor. eradicate (verb) to destroy completely. American society has failed to eradicate racism, although some of its worst effects have been reduced.

espouse (verb) to take up as a cause; to adopt. No politician in American today will openly espouse racism, although some behave and speak in racially prejudiced ways.

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

325

.................................................................

evanescent (adjective) vanishing like a vapor; fragile and transient. As she walked by, the evanescent fragrance of her perfume reached me for just an instant. exacerbate (verb) to make worse or more severe. The roads in our town already have too much traffic; building a new shopping mall will exacerbate the problem. exasperate (verb) to irritate or annoy. Because she was trying to study, Sharon was exasperated by the yelling of her neighbors’ children. exculpate (verb) to free from blame or guilt. When someone else confessed to the crime, the previous suspect was exculpated. exculpation (noun), exculpatory (adjective). exemplary (adjective) worthy to serve as a model. The Baldrige Award is given to a company with exemplary standards of excellence in products and service. exemplar (noun), exemplify (verb). exonerate (verb) to free from blame. Although the janitor was suspected at first of being involved in the criminal act, later evidence exonerated him. exoneration (noun), exonerative (adjective). expansive (adjective) broad and large; speaking openly and freely. The LBJ Ranch is located on an expansive tract of land in Texas. Over dinner, she became expansive in describing her dreams for the future. expedite (verb) to carry out promptly. As the flood waters rose, the governor ordered state agencies to expedite their rescue efforts. expertise (noun) skill, mastery. The software company was eager to hire new graduates with programming expertise. expiate (verb) to atone for. The president’s apology to the survivors of the notorious Tuskegee experiments was his attempt to expiate the nation’s guilt over their mistreatment. expiation (noun). expropriate (verb) to seize ownership of. When the Communists came to power in China, they expropriated most businesses and turned them over to government-appointed managers. expropriation (noun). extant (adjective) currently in existence. Of the seven ancient Wonders of the World, only the pyramids of Egypt are still extant. extenuate (verb) to make less serious. Karen’s guilt is extenuated by the fact that she was only twelve when she committed the theft. extenuating (adjective), extenuation (noun). extol (verb) to greatly praise. At the party convention, speaker after speaker rose to extol their candidate for the presidency. extricate (verb) to free from a difficult or complicated situation. Much of the humor in the TV show I Love Lucy comes in watching Lucy try to extricate herself from the problems she creates by fibbing or trickery. extricable (adjective).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

euphoric (adjective) a feeling of extreme happiness and well-being; elation. One often feels euphoric during the earliest days of a new love affair. euphoria (noun).

326

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

extrinsic (adjective) not an innate part or aspect of something; external. The high price of old baseball cards is due to extrinsic factors, such as the nostalgia felt by baseball fans for the stars of their youth, rather than the inherent beauty or value of the cards themselves.

exuberant (adjective) wildly joyous and enthusiastic. As the final seconds of the game ticked away, the fans of the winning team began an exuberant celebration. exuberance (noun).

F facile (adjective) easy; shallow or superficial. The one-minute political commercial favors a candidate with facile opinions rather than serious, thoughtful solutions. facilitate (verb), facility (noun). fallacy (noun) an error in fact or logic. It’s a fallacy to think that “natural” means “healthful”; after all, the deadly poison arsenic is completely natural. fallacious (adjective). felicitous (adjective) pleasing, fortunate, apt. The sudden blossoming of the dogwood trees on the morning of Matt’s wedding seemed a felicitous sign of good luck. felicity (noun). feral (adjective) wild. The garbage dump was inhabited by a pack of feral dogs, that had escaped from their owners and become completely wild.

fervent (adjective) full of intense feeling; ardent, zealous. In the days just after his religious conversion, his piety was at its most fervent. fervid (adjective), fervor (noun). flagrant (adjective) obviously wrong; offensive. Nixon was forced to resign the presidency after a series of flagrant crimes against the U.S. Constitution. flagrancy (noun).

flamboyant (adjective) very colorful, showy, or elaborate. At Mardi Gras, partygoers compete to show off the most wild and flamboyant outfits.

florid (adjective) flowery, fancy; reddish. The grand ballroom was decorated in a florid style. Years of heavy drinking had given him a florid complexion. foppish (adjective) describing a man who is foolishly vain about his dress or appearance. The foppish character of the 1890s wore bright-colored spats and a top hat; in the 1980s, he wore fancy suspenders and a shirt with a contrasting collar. fop (noun).

formidable (adjective) awesome, impressive, or frightening. According to his plaque in the Baseball Hall of Fame, pitcher Tom Seaver turned the New York Mets “from lovable losers into formidable foes.”

fortuitous (adjective) lucky, fortunate. Although the mayor claimed credit for the falling crime rate, it was really caused by several fortuitous trends.

fractious (adjective) troublesome, unruly. Members of the British Parliament are often fractious, shouting insults and sarcastic questions during debates. fragility (noun) the quality of being easy to break; delicacy, weakness. Because of their fragility, few stained glass windows from the early Middle Ages have survived. fragile (adjective).

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

327

.................................................................

frenetic (adjective) chaotic, frantic. The floor of the stock exchange, filled with traders shouting and gesturing, is a scene of frenetic activity. frivolity (noun) lack of seriousness; levity. The frivolity of the Mardi Gras carnival is in contrast to the seriousness of the religious season of Lent that follows. frivolous (adjective). frugal (adjective) spending little. With our last few dollars, we bought a frugal dinner: a loaf of bread and a piece of cheese. frugality (noun). fugitive (noun) someone trying to escape. When two prisoners broke out of the local jail, police were warned to keep an eye out for the fugitives. fugitive (adjective).

G gargantuan (adjective) huge, colossal. The building of the Great Wall of China was one of the most gargantuan projects ever undertaken. genial (adjective) friendly, gracious. A good host welcomes all visitors in a warm and genial fashion. grandiose (adjective) overly large, pretentious, or showy. Among his grandiose plans for the capital city was a gigantic building with a dome several times larger than any ever built. grandiosity (noun). gratuitous (adjective) given freely or without cause. Since her opinion was not requested, her harsh criticism of his singing seemed a gratuitous insult. gregarious (adjective) enjoying the company of others; sociable. Marty is naturally gregarious, a popular member of several clubs and a sought-after lunch companion. guileless (adjective) without cunning; innocent. Deborah’s guileless personality and complete honesty make it hard for her to survive in the harsh world of politics. gullible (adjective) easily fooled. When the sweepstakes entry form arrived bearing the message, “You may be a winner!” my gullible neighbor tried to claim a prize. gullibility (noun).

H hackneyed (adjective) without originality, trite. When someone invented the phrase, “No pain, no gain,” it was clever, but now it is so commonly heard that it seems hackneyed. haughty (adjective) overly proud. The fashion model strode down the runway, her hips thrust forward and a haughty expression, like a sneer, on her face. haughtiness (noun). hedonist (noun) someone who lives mainly to pursue pleasure. Having inherited great wealth, he chose to live the life of a hedonist, traveling the world in luxury. hedonism (noun), hedonistic (adjective).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

fraternize (verb) to associate with on friendly terms. Although baseball players aren’t supposed to fraternize with their opponents, players from opposing teams often chat before games. fraternization (noun).

328

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

heinous (adjective) very evil, hateful. The massacre by Pol Pot of more than a million Cambodians is one of the twentieth century’s most heinous crimes.

hierarchy (noun) a ranking of people, things, or ideas from highest to lowest. A cabinet secretary ranks just below the president and vice president in the hierarchy of the executive branch. hierarchical (adjective). hypocrisy (noun) a false pretense of virtue. When the moral misconduct of the television preacher was exposed, his followers were shocked at his hypocrisy. hypocritical (adjective).

I iconoclast (noun) someone who attacks traditional beliefs or institutions. Comedian Dennis Miller enjoys his reputation as an iconoclast, though people in power often resent his satirical jabs. iconoclasm (noun), iconoclastic (adjective).

idiosyncratic (adjective) peculiar to an individual; eccentric. Cyndi Lauper sings pop music in an idiosyncratic style, mingling high-pitched whoops and squeals with throaty gurgles. idiosyncrasy (noun).

idolatry (noun) the worship of a person, thing, or institution as a god. In Communist China, Chairman Mao was the subject of idolatry; his picture was displayed everywhere, and millions of Chinese memorized his sayings. idolatrous (adjective). impartial (adjective) fair, equal, unbiased. If a judge is not impartial, then all of her rulings are questionable. impartiality (noun). impeccable (adjective) flawless. The crooks printed impeccable copies of the Super Bowl tickets, making it impossible to distinguish them from the real ones.

impetuous (adjective) acting hastily or impulsively. Ben’s resignation was an impetuous act; he did it without thinking, and he soon regretted it. impetuosity (noun).

impinge (verb) to encroach upon, touch, or affect. You have a right to do whatever you want, so long as your actions don’t impinge on the rights of others. implicit (adjective) understood without being openly expressed; implied. Although most clubs had no rules excluding students, many had an implicit understanding that no students would be allowed to join. impute (verb) to credit or give responsibility to; to attribute. Although Sarah’s comments embarrassed me, I don’t impute any ill will to her; I think she didn’t realize what she was saying. imputation (noun).

inarticulate (adjective) unable to speak or express oneself clearly and understandably. A skilled athlete may be an inarticulate public speaker, as demonstrated by many post-game interviews. incisive (adjective) expressed clearly and directly. Franklin settled the debate with a few incisive remarks that summed up the issue perfectly.

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

329

.................................................................

inconsequential (adjective) of little importance. When the stereo was delivered, it was a different shade of gray than I expected, but the difference was inconsequential. incontrovertible (adjective) impossible to question. The fact that Sheila’s fingerprints were the only ones on the mirror made her guilt seem incontrovertible. incorrigible (adjective) impossible to manage or reform. Lou is an incorrigible trickster, constantly playing practical jokes no matter how much his friends complain. incremental (adjective) increasing gradually by small amounts. Although the initial cost of the Medicare program was small, the incremental expenses have grown to be very large. increment (noun). incriminate (adjective) to give evidence of guilt. The fifth amendment to the Constitution says that no one is required to reveal information that would incriminate him in a crime. incriminating (adjective). incumbent (noun) someone who occupies an office or position. It is often difficult for a challenger to win a seat in Congress from the incumbent. incumbency (noun), incumbent (adjective). indeterminate (adjective) not definitely known. The college plans to enroll an indeterminate number of students; the size of the class will depend on the number of applicants and how many accept offers of admission. determine (verb). indifferent (adjective) unconcerned, apathetic. The mayor’s small proposed budget for education suggests that he is indifferent to the needs of our schools. indifference (noun). indistinct (adjective) unclear, uncertain. We could see boats on the water, but in the thick morning fog their shapes were indistinct. indomitable (adjective) unable to be conquered or controlled. The world admired the indomitable spirit of Nelson Mandela; he remained courageous despite years of imprisonment. induce (verb) to cause. The doctor prescribed a medicine that was supposed to induce a lowering of the blood pressure. induction (noun). ineffable (adjective) difficult to describe or express. He gazed in silence at the sunrise over the Taj Mahal, his eyes reflecting an ineffable sense of wonder. inevitable (adjective) unable to be avoided. Once the Japanese attacked Pearl Harbor, American involvement in World War II was inevitable. inevitability (noun). inexorable (adjective) unable to be deterred; relentless. It’s difficult to imagine how the mythic character of Oedipus could have avoided his evil destiny; his fate appears inexorable.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

incompatible (adjective) unable to exist together; conflicting. Many people hold seemingly incompatible beliefs: for example, supporting the death penalty while believing in the sacredness of human life. incompatibility (noun).

330

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

ingenious (adjective) showing cleverness and originality. The Post-it note is an ingenious solution to a common problem—how to mark papers without spoiling them. ingenuity (noun). inherent (adjective) naturally part of something. Compromise is inherent in democracy, since everyone cannot get his way. inhere (verb), inherence (noun). innate (adjective) inborn, native. Not everyone who takes piano lessons becomes a fine musician, which shows that music requires innate talent as well as training. innocuous (adjective) harmless, inoffensive. I was surprised that Andrea took offense at such an innocuous joke. inoculate (verb) to prevent a disease by infusing with a disease-causing organism. Pasteur found he could prevent rabies by inoculating patients with the virus that causes the disease. inoculation (noun). insipid (adjective) flavorless, uninteresting. Most TV shows are so insipid that you can watch them while reading without missing a thing. insipidity (noun). insolence (noun) an attitude or behavior that is bold and disrespectful. Some feel that news reporters who shout questions at the president are behaving with insolence. insolent (adjective). insular (adjective) narrow or isolated in attitude or viewpoint. Americans are famous for their insular attitudes; they seem to think that nothing important has ever happened outside of their country. insularity (noun). insurgency (noun) uprising, rebellion. The angry townspeople had begun an insurgency bordering on downright revolution; they were collecting arms, holding secret meetings, and refusing to pay certain taxes. insurgent (adjective). integrity (noun) honesty, uprightness; soundness, completeness. “Honest Abe” Lincoln is considered a model of political integrity. Inspectors examined the building’s support beams and foundation and found no reason to doubt its structural integrity. interlocutor (noun) someone taking part in a dialogue or conversation. Annoyed by the constant questions from someone in the crowd, the speaker challenged his interlocutor to offer a better plan. interlocutory (adjective). interlude (noun) an interrupting period or performance. The two most dramatic scenes in King Lear are separated, strangely, by a comic interlude starring the king’s jester. interminable (adjective) endless or seemingly endless. Addressing the United Nations, Castro announced, “We will be brief”—then delivered an interminable 4-hour speech. intransigent (adjective) unwilling to compromise. Despite the mediator’s attempts to suggest a fair solution, the two parties were intransigent, forcing a showdown. intransigence (noun).

intrepid (adjective) fearless and resolute. Only an intrepid adventurer is willing to undertake the long and dangerous trip by sled to the South Pole. intrepidity (noun).

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

331

.................................................................

intuitive (adjective) known directly, without apparent thought or effort. An experienced chess player sometimes has an intuitive sense of the best move to make, even if she can’t explain it. intuit (verb), intuition (noun). inundate (verb) to flood; to overwhelm. As soon as playoff tickets went on sale, eager fans inundated the box office with orders. invariable (adjective) unchanging, constant. When writing a book, it was her invariable habit to rise at 6 and work at her desk from 7 to 12. invariability (noun). inversion (noun) a turning backwards, inside-out, or upside-down; a reversal. Latin poetry often features inversion of word order; for example, the first line of Virgil’s Aeneid: “Arms and the man I sing.” invert (verb), inverted (adjective). inveterate (adjective) persistent, habitual. It’s very difficult for an inveterate gambler to give up the pastime. inveteracy (noun). invigorate (verb) to give energy to, to stimulate. As her car climbed the mountain road, Lucinda felt invigorated by the clear air and the cool breezes. invincible (adjective) impossible to conquer or overcome. For three years at the height of his career, boxer Mike Tyson seemed invincible. inviolable (adjective) impossible to attack or trespass upon. In the president’s remote hideaway at Camp David, guarded by the Secret Service, his privacy is, for once, inviolable. irrational (adjective) unreasonable. Charles knew that his fear of insects was irrational, but he was unable to overcome it. irrationality (noun). irresolute (adjective) uncertain how to act, indecisive. When McGovern first said he supported his vice presidential candidate “one thousand percent,” then dropped him from the ticket, it made McGovern appear irresolute. irresolution (noun).

J jeopardize (verb) to put in danger. Terrorist attacks jeopardize the fragile peace in the Middle East. jeopardy (noun). juxtapose (verb) to put side by side. It was strange to see the old-time actor Charlton Heston and rock icon Bob Dylan juxtaposed at the awards ceremony. juxtaposition (noun).

L languid (adjective) without energy; slow, sluggish, listless. The hot, humid weather of late August can make anyone feel languid. languish (verb), languor (noun).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

intrusive (adjective) forcing a way in without being welcome. The legal requirement of a search warrant is supposed to protect Americans from intrusive searches by the police. intrude (verb), intrusion (noun).

332

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

latent (adjective) not currently obvious or active; hidden. Although he had committed only a single act of violence, the psychiatrist who examined him said he had probably always had a latent tendency toward violence. latency (noun). laudatory (adjective) giving praise. The ads for the movie are filled with laudatory comments from critics. lenient (adjective) mild, soothing, or forgiving. The judge was known for his lenient disposition; he rarely imposed long jail sentences on criminals. leniency (noun).

lethargic (adjective) lacking energy; sluggish. Visitors to the zoo are surprised that the lions appear so lethargic, but, in the wild, lions sleep up to 18 hours a day. lethargy (noun).

liability (noun) an obligation or debt; a weakness or drawback. The insurance company had a liability of millions of dollars after the town was destroyed by a tornado. Slowness afoot is a serious liability in an aspiring basketball player. liable (adjective).

lithe (adjective)

flexible and graceful. The ballet dancer was almost as lithe as a cat.

longevity (noun) length of life; durability. The reduction in early deaths from infectious diseases is responsible for most of the increase in human longevity over the past two centuries. lucid (adjective) clear and understandable. Hawking’s A Short History of the Universe is a lucid explanation of modern scientific theories about the origin of the universe. lucidity (noun).

lurid (adjective) shocking, gruesome. While the serial killer was on the loose, the newspapers were filled with lurid stories about his crimes.

M malediction (noun) curse. In the fairy tale “Sleeping Beauty,” the princess is trapped in a death-like sleep because of the malediction uttered by an angry witch.

malevolence (noun) hatred, ill will. Critics say that Iago, the villain in Shakespeare’s Othello, seems to exhibit malevolence with no real cause. malevolent (adjective). malinger (verb) to pretend incapacity or illness to avoid a duty or work. During the labor dispute, hundreds of employees malingered, forcing the company to slow production and costing it millions in profits. malleable (adjective) able to be changed, shaped, or formed by outside pressures. Gold is a very useful metal because it is so malleable. A child’s personality is malleable and deeply influenced by the things her parents say and do. malleability (noun).

mandate (noun) order, command. The new policy on gays in the military went into effect as soon as the president issued his mandate about it. mandate (verb), mandatory (adjective). maturation (noun) the process of becoming fully grown or developed. Free markets in the former Communist nations are likely to operate smoothly only after a long period of maturation. mature (adjective and verb), maturity (noun).

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

333

.................................................................

mediocrity (noun) the state of being middling or poor in quality. The New York Mets, finished in ninth place in 1968, won the world’s championship in 1969, going from horrible to great in a single year and skipping mediocrity. mediocre (adjective). mercurial (adjective) changing quickly and unpredictably. The mercurial personality of Robin Williams, with his many voices and styles, made him perfect for the role of the ever-changing genie in Aladdin. meticulous (adjective) very careful with details. Repairing watches calls for a craftsperson who is patient and meticulous. mimicry (noun) imitation, aping. The continued popularity of Elvis Presley has given rise to a class of entertainers who make a living through mimicry of “The King.” mimic (noun and verb). misconception (noun) a mistaken idea. Columbus sailed west with the misconception that he would reach the shores of Asia. misconceive (verb). mitigate (verb) to make less severe; to relieve. Wallace certainly committed the assault, but the verbal abuse he’d received helps to explain his behavior and somewhat mitigates his guilt. mitigation (noun). modicum (noun) a small amount. The plan for your new business is well designed; with a modicum of luck, you should be successful. mollify (verb) to soothe or calm; to appease. Carla tried to mollify the angry customer by promising him a full refund. morose (adjective) gloomy, sullen. After Chuck’s girlfriend dumped him, he lay around the house for a couple of days, feeling morose. mundane (adjective) everyday, ordinary, commonplace. Moviegoers in the 1930s liked the glamorous films of Fred Astaire because they provided an escape from the mundane problems of life during the Great Depression. munificent (adjective) very generous; lavish. Ted Turner’s billion-dollar donation to the United Nations is probably the most munificent act of charity in history. munificence (noun). mutable (adjective) likely to change. A politician’s reputation can be highly mutable, as seen in the case of Harry Truman—mocked during his lifetime, revered afterward.

N narcissistic (adjective) showing excessive love for oneself; egoistic. Andre’s room, decorated with photos of himself and the sports trophies he has won, suggests a narcissistic personality. narcissism (noun).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

mediate (verb) to act to reconcile differences between two parties. During the baseball strike, both the players and the club owners were willing to have the president mediate the dispute. mediation (noun).

334

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

nocturnal (adjective) of the night; active at night. Travelers on the Underground Railroad escaped from slavery to the North by a series of nocturnal flights. The eyes of nocturnal animals must be sensitive in dim light. nonchalant (adjective) appearing to be unconcerned. Unlike the other players on the football team, who pumped their fists when their names were announced, John ran on the field with a nonchalant wave. nonchalance (noun).

nondescript (adjective) without distinctive qualities; drab. The bank robber’s clothes were nondescript; none of the witnesses could remember their color or style.

notorious (adjective) famous, especially for evil actions or qualities. Warner Brothers produced a series of movies about notorious gangsters such as John Dillinger and Al Capone. notoriety (noun). novice (noun) beginner, tyro. Lifting your head before you finish your swing is a typical mistake committed by the novice at golf. nuance (noun) a subtle difference or quality. At first glance, Monet’s paintings of water lilies all look much alike, but the more you study them, the more you appreciate the nuances of color and shading that distinguish them. nurture (verb) to nourish or help to grow. The money given by the National Endowment for the Arts helps nurture local arts organizations throughout the country. nurture (noun).

O obdurate (adjective) unwilling to change; stubborn, inflexible. Despite the many pleas he received, the governor was obdurate in his refusal to grant clemency to the convicted murderer.

objective (adjective) dealing with observable facts rather than opinions or interpretations. When a legal case involves a shocking crime, it may be hard for a judge to remain objective in his rulings. oblivious (adjective) unaware, unconscious. Karen practiced her oboe with complete concentration, oblivious to the noise and activity around her. oblivion (noun), obliviousness (noun). obscure (adjective) little known; hard to understand. Mendel was an obscure monk until decades after his death, when his scientific work was finally discovered. Most people find the writings of James Joyce obscure; hence the popularity of books that explain his books. obscure (verb), obscurity (noun). obsessive (adjective) haunted or preoccupied by an idea or feeling. His concern with cleanliness became so obsessive that he washed his hands twenty times every day. obsess (verb), obsession (noun). obsolete (adjective) no longer current; old-fashioned. W. H. Auden said that his ideal landscape would include water wheels, wooden grain mills, and other forms of obsolete machinery. obsolescence (noun).

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

335

.................................................................

obtrusive (adjective) overly prominent. Philip should sing more softly; his bass is so obtrusive that the other singers can barely be heard. obtrude (verb), obtrusion (noun). ominous (adjective) foretelling evil. Ominous black clouds gathered on the horizon, for a violent storm was fast approaching. omen (noun). onerous (adjective) heavy, burdensome. The hero Hercules was ordered to clean the Augean Stables, one of several onerous tasks known as “the labors of Hercules.” onus (noun). opportunistic (adjective) eagerly seizing chances as they arise. When Princess Diana died suddenly, opportunistic publishers quickly released books about her life and death. opportunism (noun). opulent (adjective) rich, lavish. The mansion of newspaper tycoon Hearst is famous for its opulent decor. opulence (noun). ornate (adjective) highly decorated, elaborate. Baroque architecture is often highly ornate, featuring surfaces covered with carving, sinuous curves, and painted scenes. ostentatious (adjective) overly showy, pretentious. To show off his wealth, the millionaire threw an ostentatious party featuring a full orchestra, a famous singer, and tens of thousands of dollars worth of food. ostracize (verb) to exclude from a group. In Biblical times, those who suffered from the disease of leprosy were ostracized and forced to live alone. ostracism (noun).

P pallid (adjective) pale; dull. Working all day in the coal mine had given him a pallid complexion. The new musical offers only pallid entertainment: the music is lifeless, the acting dull, the story absurd. parched (adjective) very dry; thirsty. After two months without rain, the crops were shriveled and parched by the sun. parch (verb). pariah (noun) outcast. Accused of robbery, he became a pariah; his neighbors stopped talking to him, and people he’d considered friends no longer called. partisan (adjective) reflecting strong allegiance to a particular party or cause. The vote on the president’s budget was strictly partisan: every member of the president’s party voted yes, and all others voted no. partisan (noun). pathology (noun) disease or the study of disease; extreme abnormality. Some people believe that high rates of crime are symptoms of an underlying social pathology. pathological (adjective). pellucid (adjective) very clear; transparent; easy to understand. The water in the mountain stream was cold and pellucid. Thanks to the professor’s pellucid explanation, I finally understand relativity theory.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

obstinate (adjective) stubborn, unyielding. Despite years of effort, the problem of drug abuse remains obstinate. obstinacy (noun).

336

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

penitent (adjective) feeling sorry for past crimes or sins. Having grown penitent, he wrote a long letter of apology, asking forgiveness.

penurious (adjective) extremely frugal; stingy. Haunted by memories of poverty, he lived in penurious fashion, driving a twelve-year-old car and wearing only the cheapest clothes. penury (noun).

perceptive (adjective) quick to notice, observant. With his perceptive intelligence, Holmes was the first to notice the importance of this clue. perceptible (adjective), perception (noun).

perfidious (adjective) disloyal, treacherous. Although he was one of the most talented generals of the American Revolution, Benedict Arnold is remembered today as a perfidious betrayer of his country. perfidy (noun). perfunctory (adjective) unenthusiastic, routine, or mechanical. When the play opened, the actors sparkled, but by the thousandth night their performance had become perfunctory.

permeate (verb) to spread through or penetrate. Little by little, the smell of gas from the broken pipe permeated the house. persevere (adjective) to continue despite difficulties. Although several of her teammates dropped out of the marathon, Laura persevered. perseverance (noun).

perspicacity (noun) keenness of observation or understanding. Journalist Murray Kempton was famous for the perspicacity of his comments on social and political issues. perspicacious (adjective).

peruse (verb) to examine or study. Mary-Jo perused the contract carefully before she signed it. perusal (noun). pervasive (adjective) spreading throughout. As news of the disaster reached the town, a pervasive sense of gloom could be felt. pervade (verb).

phlegmatic (adjective) sluggish and unemotional in temperament. It was surprising to see Tom, who is normally so phlegmatic, acting excited. placate (verb) to soothe or appease. The waiter tried to placate the angry customer with the offer of a free dessert. placatory (adjective). plastic (adjective) able to be molded or reshaped. Because it is highly plastic, clay is an easy material for beginning sculptors to use.

plausible (adjective) apparently believable. The idea that a widespread conspiracy to kill President Kennedy has been kept secret for over thirty years hardly seems plausible. plausibility (noun). polarize (adjective) to separate into opposing groups or forces. For years, the abortion debate polarized the American people, with many people voicing extreme views and few trying to find a middle ground. polarization (noun).

portend (verb) to indicate a future event; to forebode. According to folklore, a red sky at dawn portends a day of stormy weather.

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

337

.................................................................

pragmatism (noun) a belief in approaching problems through practical rather than theoretical means. Roosevelt’s approach toward the Great Depression was based on pragmatism: “Try something,” he said; “If it doesn’t work, try something else.” pragmatic (adjective). preamble (noun) an introductory statement. The preamble to the Constitution begins with the famous words, “We the people of the United States of America . . .” precocious (adjective) mature at an unusually early age. Picasso was so precocious as an artist that, at nine, he is said to have painted far better pictures than his teacher. precocity (noun). predatory (adjective) living by killing and eating other animals; exploiting others for personal gain. The tiger is the largest predatory animal native to Asia. Microsoft has been accused of predatory business practices that prevent other software companies from competing with them. predation (noun), predator (noun). predilection (noun) a liking or preference. To relax from his presidential duties, Kennedy had a predilection for spy novels featuring James Bond. predominant (adjective) greatest in numbers or influence. Although hundreds of religions are practiced in India, the predominant faith is Hinduism. predominance (noun), predominate (verb). prepossessing (adjective) attractive. Smart, lovely, and talented, she has all the prepossessing qualities that mark a potential movie star. presumptuous (adjective) going beyond the limits of courtesy or appropriateness. The senator winced when the presumptuous young staffer addressed him as “Chuck.” presume (verb), presumption (noun). pretentious (adjective) claiming excessive value or importance. For a shoe salesman to call himself a “Personal Foot Apparel Consultant” seems awfully pretentious. pretension (noun). procrastinate (verb) to put off, to delay. If you habitually procrastinate, try this technique: never touch a piece of paper without either filing it, responding to it, or throwing it out. procrastination (noun). profane (adjective) impure, unholy. It seems inappropriate to have such profane activities as roller blading and disco dancing in a church. profane (verb), profanity (noun). proficient (adjective) skillful, adept. A proficient artist, Louise quickly and accurately sketched the scene. proficiency (noun). proliferate (verb) to increase or multiply. Over the past 15 years, high-tech companies have proliferated in northern California, Massachusetts, and other regions. proliferation (noun).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

potentate (noun) a powerful ruler. Before the Russian Revolution, the Tsar was one of the last hereditary potentates of Europe.

338

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

prolific (adjective) producing many offspring or creations. With more than three hundred books to his credit, Isaac Asimov was one of the most prolific writers of all time.

prominence (noun) the quality of standing out; fame. The senator’s victory in the West Virginia primary gave her a position of prominence among the Democratic candidates for president. prominent (adjective).

promulgate (verb) to make public, to declare. Lincoln signed the proclamation that freed the slaves in 1862, but he waited several months to promulgate it.

propagate (verb) to cause to grow; to foster. John Smithson’s will left his fortune for the founding of an institution to propagate knowledge, without saying whether that meant a university, a library, or a museum. propagation (noun).

propriety (noun) appropriateness. Some people had doubts about the propriety of Clinton’s discussing his underwear on MTV. prosaic (adjective) everyday, ordinary, dull. “Paul’s Case” tells the story of a boy who longs to escape from the prosaic life of a clerk into a world of wealth, glamour, and beauty.

protagonist (noun) the main character in a story or play; the main supporter of an idea. Leopold Bloom is the protagonist of James Joyce’s great novel, Ulysses. provocative (adjective) likely to stimulate emotions, ideas, or controversy. The demonstrators began chanting obscenities, a provocative act that they hoped would cause the police to lose control. provoke (verb), provocation (noun).

proximity (noun) closeness, nearness. Neighborhood residents were angry over the proximity of the sewage plant to the local school. proximate (adjective). prudent (adjective) wise, cautious, and practical. A prudent investor will avoid putting all of her money into any single investment. prudence (noun), prudential (adjective).

pugnacious (adjective) combative, bellicose, truculent; ready to fight. Ty Cobb, the pugnacious outfielder for the Detroit Tigers, got into more than his fair share of brawls, both on and off the field. pugnacity (noun). punctilious (adjective) very concerned about proper forms of behavior and manners. A punctilious dresser like James would rather skip the party altogether than wear the wrong color tie. punctilio (noun). pundit (noun) someone who offers opinions in an authoritative style. The Sunday afternoon talk shows are filled with pundits, each with his or her own theory about the week’s political news.

punitive (adjective) inflicting punishment. The jury awarded the plaintiff one million dollars in punitive damages, hoping to teach the defendant a lesson. purify (verb) to make pure, clean, or perfect. The new plant is supposed to purify the drinking water provided to everyone in the nearby towns. purification (noun).

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

339

.................................................................

quell (verb)

to quiet, to suppress. It took a huge number of police to quell the rioting.

querulous (adjective) complaining, whining. The nursing home attendant needed a lot of patience to care for the three querulous, unpleasant residents on his floor.

R rancorous (adjective) expressing bitter hostility. Many Americans are disgusted by recent political campaigns, which seem more rancorous than ever before. rancor (noun). rationale (noun) an underlying reason or explanation. At first, it seemed strange that several camera companies would freely share their newest technology; but their rationale was that offering one new style of film would benefit them all. raze (verb) to completely destroy; demolish. The old Coliseum building will soon be razed to make room for a new hotel. reciprocate (verb) to make a return for something. If you’ll baby-sit for my kids tonight, I’ll reciprocate by taking care of yours tomorrow. reciprocity (noun). reclusive (adjective) withdrawn from society. During the last years of her life, actress Greta Garbo led a reclusive existence, rarely appearing in public. recluse (noun). reconcile (verb) to make consistent or harmonious. Roosevelt’s greatness as a leader can be seen in his ability to reconcile the demands and values of the varied groups that supported him. reconciliation (noun). recriminate (verb) to accuse, often in response to an accusation. Divorce proceedings sometimes become bitter, as the two parties recriminate each other over the causes of the breakup. recrimination (noun), recriminatory (adjective). recuperate (verb) to regain health after an illness. Although she left the hospital two days after her operation, it took her a few weeks to fully recuperate. recuperation (noun), recuperative (adjective). redoubtable (adjective) inspiring respect, awe, or fear. Johnson’s knowledge, experience, and personal clout made him a redoubtable political opponent. refurbish (verb) to fix up; renovate. It took three days’ work by a team of carpenters, painters, and decorators to completely refurbish the apartment. refute (adjective) to prove false. The company invited reporters to visit their plant in an effort to refute the charges of unsafe working conditions. refutation (noun). relevance (noun) connection to the matter at hand; pertinence. Testimony in a criminal trial may be admitted only if it has clear relevance to the question of guilt or innocence. relevant (adjective). remedial (adjective) serving to remedy, cure, or correct some condition. Affirmative action can be justified as a remedial step to help minority members overcome the effects of past discrimination. remediation (noun), remedy (verb).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

Q

340

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

remorse (noun) a painful sense of guilt over wrongdoing. In Poe’s story “The Tell-Tale Heart,” a murderer is driven insane by remorse over his crime. remorseful (adjective). remuneration (noun) pay. In a civil lawsuit, the attorney often receives part of the financial settlement as his or her remuneration. remunerate (verb), remunerative (adjective). renovate (verb) to renew by repairing or rebuilding. The television program “This Old House” shows how skilled craftspeople renovate houses. renovation (noun).

renunciation (noun) the act of rejecting or refusing something. King Edward VII’s renunciation of the British throne was caused by his desire to marry an American divorcee, something he couldn’t do as king. renounce (verb).

replete (adjective) filled abundantly. Graham’s book is replete with wonderful stories about the famous people she has known.

reprehensible (adjective) deserving criticism or censure. Although Pete Rose’s misdeeds were reprehensible, not all fans agree that he deserves to be excluded from the Baseball Hall of Fame. reprehend (verb), reprehension (noun). repudiate (verb) to reject, to renounce. After it became known that Duke had been a leader of the Ku Klux Klan, most Republican leaders repudiated him. repudiation (noun).

reputable (adjective) having a good reputation; respected. Find a reputable auto mechanic by asking your friends for recommendations based on their own experiences. reputation (noun), repute (noun). resilient (adjective) able to recover from difficulty. A pro athlete must be resilient, able to lose a game one day and come back the next with confidence and enthusiasm. resilience (adjective).

resplendent (adjective) glowing, shining. In late December, midtown New York is resplendent with holiday lights and decorations. resplendence (noun).

responsive (adjective) reacting quickly and appropriately. The new director of the Internal Revenue Service has promised to make the agency more responsive to public complaints. respond (verb), response (noun).

restitution (noun) return of something to its original owner; repayment. Some Native American leaders are demanding that the U.S. government make restitution for the lands taken from them by white settlers.

revere (verb) to admire deeply, to honor. Millions of people around the world revered Mother Teresa for her saintly generosity. reverence (noun), reverent (adjective). rhapsodize (verb) to praise in a wildly emotional way. That critic is such a huge fan of Toni Morrison that she will surely rhapsodize over the writer’s next novel. rhapsodic (adjective).

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

341

.................................................................

sagacious (adjective) discerning, wise. Only a leader as sagacious as Nelson Mandela could have united South Africa so successfully and peacefully. sagacity (noun). salvage (verb) to save from wreck or ruin. After the earthquake destroyed her home, she was able to salvage only a few of her belongings. salvage (noun), salvageable (adjective). sanctimonious (adjective) showing false or excessive piety. The sanctimonious prayers of the TV preacher were interspersed with requests that the viewers send him money. sanctimony (noun). scapegoat (noun) someone who bears the blame for others’ acts; someone hated for no apparent reason. Although Buckner’s error was only one reason the Red Sox lost, many fans made him the scapegoat, booing him mercilessly. scrupulous (adjective) acting with extreme care; painstaking. Disney theme parks are famous for their scrupulous attention to small details. scruple (noun). scrutinize (verb) to study closely. The lawyer scrutinized the contract, searching for any sentence that could pose a risk for her client. scrutiny (noun). secrete (verb) to emit; to hide. Glands in the mouth secrete saliva, a liquid that helps in digestion. The jewel thieves secreted the necklace in a tin box buried underground. sedentary (adjective) requiring much sitting. When Officer Samson was given a desk job, she had trouble getting used to sedentary work after years on the street. sequential (adjective) arranged in an order or series. The courses for the chemistry major are sequential; you must take them in the order, since each course builds on the previous ones. sequence (noun). serendipity (noun) the ability to make lucky accidental discoveries. Great inventions sometimes come about through deliberate research and hard work, sometimes through pure serendipity. serendipitous (adjective). servile (adjective) like a slave or servant; submissive. The tycoon demanded that his underlings behave in a servile manner, agreeing quickly with everything he said. servility (noun). simulated (adjective) imitating something else; artificial. High-quality simulated gems must be examined under a magnifying glass to be distinguished from real ones. simulate (verb), simulation (noun). solace (verb) to comfort or console. There was little the rabbi could say to solace the husband after his wife’s death. solace (noun). spontaneous (adjective) happening without plan or outside cause. When the news of Kennedy’s assassination broke, people everywhere gathered in a spontaneous effort to share their shock and grief. spontaneity (noun). spurious (adjective) false, fake. The so-called Piltdown Man, supposed to be the fossil of a primitive human, turned out to be spurious, although who created the hoax is still uncertain. www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

S

342

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

squander (verb) to use up carelessly, to waste. Those who had made donations to the charity were outraged to learn that its director had squandered millions on fancy dinners and first-class travel. stagnate (verb) to become stale through lack of movement or change. Having had no contact with the outside world for generations, Japan’s culture gradually stagnated. stagnant (adjective), stagnation (noun). staid (adjective) sedate, serious, and grave. This college is no “party school”; the students all work hard, and the campus has a reputation for being staid.

stimulus (noun) something that excites a response or provokes an action. The arrival of merchants and missionaries from the West provided a stimulus for change in Japanese society. stimulate (verb). stoic (adjective) showing little feeling, even in response to pain or sorrow. A soldier must respond to the death of his comrades in stoic fashion, since the fighting will not stop for his grief. stoicism (noun).

strenuous (adjective) requiring energy and strength. Hiking in the foothills of the Rockies is fairly easy, but climbing the higher peaks can be strenuous. submissive (adjective) accepting the will of others; humble, compliant. At the end of Ibsen’s play A Doll’s House, Nora leaves her husband and abandons the role of submissive housewife.

substantiated (adjective) verified or supported by evidence. The charge that Nixon had helped to cover up crimes was substantiated by his comments about it on a series of audio tapes. substantiate (verb), substantiation (noun). sully (verb) to soil, stain, or defile. Nixon’s misdeeds as president did much to sully the reputation of the American government. superficial (adjective) on the surface only; without depth or substance. Her wound was superficial and required only a light bandage. His superficial attractiveness hides the fact that his personality is lifeless and his mind is dull. superficiality (noun). superfluous (adjective) more than is needed, excessive. Once you’ve won the debate, don’t keep talking; superfluous arguments will only bore and annoy the audience. suppress (verb) to put down or restrain. As soon as the unrest began, thousands of helmeted police were sent into the streets to suppress the riots. suppression (noun). surfeit (noun) an excess. Most American families have a surfeit of food and drink on Thanksgiving Day. surfeit (verb).

surreptitious (adjective) done in secret. Because Iraq had avoided weapons inspections, many once believed it had a surreptitious weapons development program.

surrogate (noun) a substitute. When the congressman died in office, his wife was named to serve the rest of his term as a surrogate. surrogate (adjective). sustain (verb) to keep up, to continue; to support. Because of fatigue, he was unable to sustain the effort needed to finish the marathon.

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

343

.................................................................

tactile (adjective) relating to the sense of touch. The thick brush strokes and gobs of color give the paintings of Van Gogh a strongly tactile quality. tactility (noun). talisman (noun) an object supposed to have magical effects or qualities. Superstitious people sometimes carry a rabbit’s foot, a lucky coin, or some other talisman. tangential (adjective) touching lightly; only slightly connected or related. Having enrolled in a class on African-American history, the students found the teacher’s stories about his travels in South America only of tangential interest. tangent (noun). tedium (noun) boredom. For most people, watching the Weather Channel for 24 hours would be sheer tedium. tedious (adjective). temerity (noun) boldness, rashness, excessive daring. Only someone who didn’t understand the danger would have the temerity to try to climb Everest without a guide. temerarious (adjective). temperance (noun) moderation or restraint in feelings and behavior. Most professional athletes practice temperance in their personal habits; too much eating or drinking, they know, can harm their performance. temperate (adjective). tenacious (adjective) clinging, sticky, or persistent. Tenacious in pursuit of her goal, she applied for the grant unsuccessfully four times before it was finally approved. tenacity (noun). tentative (adjective) subject to change; uncertain. A firm schedule has not been established, but the Super Bowl in 2005 has been given the tentative date of February 6. terminate (verb) to end, to close. The Olympic Games terminate with a grand ceremony attended by athletes from every participating country. terminal (noun), termination (noun). terrestrial (adjective) of the Earth. The movie Close Encounters of the Third Kind tells the story of the first contact between beings from outer space and terrestrial humans. therapeutic (adjective) curing or helping to cure. Hot-water spas were popular in the nineteenth century among the sickly, who believed that soaking in the water had therapeutic effects. therapy (noun). timorous (adjective) fearful, timid. The cowardly lion approached the throne of the wizard with a timorous look on his face. toady (noun) someone who flatters a superior in hopes of gaining favor; a sycophant. “I can’t stand a toady!” declared the movie mogul. “Give me someone who’ll tell me the truth—even if it costs him his job!” toady (verb). tolerant (adjective) accepting, enduring. San Franciscans have a tolerant attitude about lifestyles: “Live and let live” seems to be their motto. tolerate (verb), toleration (noun). toxin (noun) poison. DDT is a powerful toxin once used to kill insects but now banned in the U.S. because of the risk it poses to human life. toxic (adjective).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

T

344

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

tranquillity (noun) freedom from disturbance or turmoil; calm. She moved from New York City to rural Vermont seeking the tranquillity of country life. tranquil (adjective). transgress (verb) to go past limits; to violate. If that country has developed biological weapons, then it has transgressed the United Nation’s rules against weapons of mass destruction. transgression (noun). transient (adjective) passing quickly. Long-term visitors to this hotel pay at a different rate than transient guests who stay for just a day or two. transience (noun). transitory (adjective) quickly passing. Public moods tend to be transitory; people may be anxious and angry one month, but relatively content and optimistic the next. transition (noun). translucent (adjective) letting some light pass through. Blocks of translucent glass let daylight into the room while maintaining privacy. transmute (verb) to change in form or substance. In the Middle Ages, the alchemists tried to discover ways to transmute metals such as iron into gold. transmutation (noun). treacherous (adjective) untrustworthy or disloyal; dangerous or unreliable. Nazi Germany proved to be a treacherous ally, first signing a peace pact with the Soviet Union, then invading. Be careful crossing the rope bridge; parts are badly frayed and treacherous. treachery (noun).

tremulous (adjective) trembling or shaking; timid or fearful. Never having spoken in public before, he began his speech in a tremulous, hesitant voice.

trite (adjective) boring because of over-familiarity; hackneyed. Her letters were filled with trite expressions, like “All’s well that ends well” and “So far so good.” truculent (adjective) aggressive, hostile, belligerent. The dictator’s truculent behavior in demanding more territory for his country made it clear that war was inevitable. truculence (noun). truncate (verb) to cut off. The manuscript of the play appeared truncated; the last page ended in the middle of a scene, halfway through the first act. turbulent (adjective) agitated or disturbed. The night before the championship match, Martina was unable to sleep, her mind turbulent with fears and hopes. turbulence (noun).

U unheralded (adjective) little known, unexpected. In a year of big-budget, much-hyped mega-movies, this unheralded foreign film has surprised everyone with its popularity. unpalatable (adjective) distasteful, unpleasant. Although I agree with the candidate on many issues, I can’t vote for her, because I find her position on capital punishment unpalatable. unparalleled (adjective) with no equal; unique. Tiger Woods’s victory in the Masters golf tournament by a full twelve strokes was an unparalleled accomplishment.

www.petersons.com

Apendix A: The PSAT/NMSQT Word List

345

.................................................................

untenable (adjective) impossible to defend. The theory that this painting is a genuine Van Gogh became untenable when the artist who actually painted it came forth. untimely (adjective) out of the natural or proper time. The untimely death of a youthful Princess Diana seemed far more tragic than Mother Teresa’s death of old age. unyielding (adjective) firm, resolute, obdurate. Despite criticism, Cuomo was unyielding in his opposition to capital punishment; he vetoed several death penalty bills as governor. usurper (noun) someone who takes a place or possession without the right to do so. Kennedy’s most devoted followers tended to regard later presidents as usurpers, holding the office they felt he or his brothers should have held. usurp (verb), usurpation (noun). utilitarian (adjective) purely of practical benefit. The design of the Model T car was simple and utilitarian, lacking the luxuries found in later models. utopia (noun) an imaginary, perfect society. Those who founded the Oneida community dreamed that it could be a kind of utopia—a prosperous state with complete freedom and harmony. utopian (adjective).

V validate (verb) to officially approve or confirm. The election of the president is validated when the members of the Electoral College meet to confirm the choice of the voters. valid (adjective), validity (noun). variegated (adjective) spotted with different colors. The brilliant, variegated appearance of butterflies makes them popular among collectors. variegation (noun). venerate (verb) to admire or honor. In Communist China, Chairman Mao Zedong was venerated as an almost god-like figure. venerable (adjective), veneration (noun). verdant (adjective) green with plant life. Southern England is famous for its verdant countryside filled with gardens and small farms. verdancy (noun). vestige (noun) a trace or remainder. Today’s tiny Sherwood Forest is the last vestige of a woodland that once covered most of England. vestigial (adjective). vex (verb) to irritate, annoy, or trouble. Unproven for generations, Fermat’s last theorem was one of the most famous, and most vexing, of all mathematical puzzles. vexation (noun). vicarious (adjective) experienced through someone else’s actions by way of the imagination. Great literature broadens our minds by giving us vicarious participation in the lives of other people. vindicate (verb) to confirm, justify, or defend. Lincoln’s Gettysburg Address was intended to vindicate the objectives of the Union in the Civil War. virtuoso (noun) someone very skilled, especially in an art. Vladimir Horowitz was one of the great piano virtuosos of the twentieth century. virtuosity (noun).

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

unstinting (adjective) giving freely and generously. Eleanor Roosevelt was much admired for her unstinting efforts on behalf of the poor.

346

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

vivacious (adjective) lively, sprightly. The role of Maria in The Sound of Music is usually played by a charming, vivacious young actress. vivacity (noun).

volatile (adjective) quickly changing; fleeting, transitory; prone to violence. Public opinion is notoriously volatile; a politician who is very popular one month may be voted out of office the next. volatility (noun).

W whimsical (adjective) based on a capricious, carefree, or sudden impulse or idea; fanciful, playful. Dave Barry’s Book of Bad Songs is filled with the kind of goofy jokes that are typical of his whimsical sense of humor. whim (noun).

Z zealous (adjective) filled with eagerness, fervor, or passion. A crowd of the candidate’s most zealous supporters greeted her at the airport with banners, signs, and a marching band. zeal (noun), zealot (noun), zealotry (noun).

www.petersons.com

All About the SAT

.............................................................................

One explicitly stated purpose of the SAT is to predict how students will perform academically as college freshmen. But the more practical purpose of the SAT is to help college admissions officers make acceptance decisions. When you think about it, admissions officers have a difficult job, particularly when they are asked to compare the academic records of students from different high schools in different parts of the country taking different classes. It’s not easy to figure out how one student’s grade point average (GPA) in New Mexico correlates with that of another student in Florida. Even though admissions officers can do a good deal of detective work to fairly evaluate candidates, they benefit a great deal from the SAT. The SAT provides a single, standardized means of comparison. After all, virtually every student takes the SAT, and the SAT is the same for everyone. It doesn’t matter whether you hail from Maine, Maryland, or Montana. So the SAT is an important test. But it is not the be-all, end-all. Keep it in perspective! It is only one of several important pieces of the college admissions puzzle. Other factors that weigh heavily into the admission process include GPA, difficulty of course load, level of extracurricular involvement, and the strength of the college application itself.

WHEN YOU SHOULD TAKE THE SAT (AND SAT SUBJECT TESTS) When you decide which schools you’re going to apply to, find out if they require the SAT. Most do! Your next step is to determine when they need your SAT scores. Write that date down. That’s the one you really don’t want to miss. You do have some leeway in choosing your test date. The SAT is offered on one Saturday morning in October, November, December, January, March, May, and June. Check the exact dates to see which ones meet your deadlines. To do this, count back six weeks from each deadline, because that’s how long it takes ETS to score your test and send out the results.

347

appendix b

HOW THE SAT IS USED FOR COLLEGE ADMISSION

348

APPENDIXES

.................................................................

Are you starting to prepare a little later than you had planned? Don’t get upset; it happens. Using the accelerated course, you should be able to cover most of the material within a month. You probably won’t have much time to practice, but you’ll get the most important facts about the test and be able to take a few sample exams.

..........................................................................................

TIP

What if you don’t know which schools you want to apply to? Don’t panic! Even if you take the exam in December or January of your senior year, you’ll probably have plenty of time to send your scores to most schools. When you plan to take the SAT, there is something even more important than the application deadlines of particular schools. You need to select a test date that works best with your schedule. Ideally, you should allow yourself at least two to three months to use this book to prepare. Many students like to take the test in March of their junior year. That way, they take the SAT several months before final exams, proms, and end- of-the-year distractions. Taking the test in March also gives students early feedback as to how they are scoring. If they are dissatisfied with their scores, there is ample opportunity to take the test again in the spring or following fall. But your schedule might not easily accommodate a March testing. Maybe you’re involved in a winter sport or school play that will take too much time away from SAT studying. Maybe you have a family reunion planned over spring break in March. Or maybe you simply prefer to prepare during a different time of year. If that’s the case, just pick another date. If the schools you’ve decided on also require SAT Subject Tests, here’s one good piece of advice: try to take SAT Subject Tests immediately after you finish the subject(s) in school. For most of you, this means taking the SAT Subject Tests in June. By taking the exam then, you’ll save an awful lot of review work. Remember this, too: you have to register for the SAT Subject Tests separately, and you can’t take the Subject Tests on the same day as the SAT. So check the dates, think ahead, and plan it out. It’s worth it in the end.

HOW MANY TIMES SHOULD YOU TAKE THE SAT? Different colleges evaluate the SAT in different ways. Some take your highest math, critical reading, and writing scores, even if they were earned on different test days. So if you nailed the math portion in March, the verbal portion in October, and the writing in December, the colleges will combine those three numbers to maximize your overall score. However, many other colleges won’t do that. Some pay most attention to your highest combined score from a single day. Many others will average all of your scores or lend equal weight to all of them. So what does this mean? It means that you should only take the SAT when you are truly prepared. Because no matter what each school’s individual policy tends to be, every single SAT score you earn is part of your permanent transcript, so colleges see them all. Ideally, you should try to earn your “goal score” sooner rather than later. For example, a student who hits his objective of 2400 in one sitting certainly has an advantage over a student who needed five tries to squeeze out 2400. There is nothing wrong with taking the SAT two or three times, as long as you are confident that your scores will improve substantially each time. Let’s say that you scored a 1720 on your first SAT. If you would have been thrilled to have hit 1740, it’s probably not worth taking the test again. Most colleges look at SAT scores in ranges and will not hold 20 points against you. They understand that scoring 1720 means that you were only one or two questions away from 1740. But if you scored 1720 and expected to score closer to 1900 or 2000 based on practice testing, then you should probably retake the exam. In other words, it is of little value to take

www.petersons.com

Appendix B: All About the SAT

349

.................................................................

HOW TO REGISTER FOR THE SAT You should register for the SAT at least six weeks before your testing date. That way you will avoid late registration fees and increase your chances of taking the exam at your first-choice testing center. You can register through the mail by completing the SAT registration form found inside the annual SAT bulletin. Your high school guidance office should have plenty of extra copies of the SAT bulletin. If you’d like, you can also register online or by telephone. Be sure to have a credit card handy to charge the fee. Mailing addresses, phone numbers, and Web addresses for both of the main SAT registration centers are shown in the following table:

College Board SAT Program Address The College Board SAT Program P.O. Box 025505 Miami, FL 33102 866-756-7346 (toll-free in the U.S.) 212-713-7789 (international) 609-771-7137 (services for students with disabilities) 888-857-2477 (TTY, in the U.S.) 609-882-4118 (TTY, international) (8 a.m. to 9 p.m., M-F, Eastern time)

GET TO THE KNOW THE SAT FORMAT The SAT consists of sections on mathematical reasoning, critical reading, and writing. There are eight sections that count toward your accumulated score and one—the “wild card”—that does not. The wild card section, formally known as the experimental section, can be math, critical reading, or writing. This is the part of the test where ETS—the company that writes the SAT—tries out questions that might be used on future tests. Even though the wild card section doesn’t count toward your score, you won’t know which section it is. ETS does this on purpose. It knows that if you knew which section didn’t count, you probably wouldn’t try your hardest on it. So you’ll have to do your best on all the sections. The sections are timed to range from 20 to 35 minutes. The whole test, including the experimental section, takes 3 hours and 45 minutes. Don’t worry. There are breaks. The following chart gives you an idea of what to expect. Note that the order of the sections will vary and are mixed so that you may have a math section followed by a critical reading section followed by a writing section. You won’t have all the math sections grouped together and then both writing sections.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

the SAT multiple times if you expect to earn roughly the same score. But it is worthwhile if you expect to score significantly higher on a second or third try. For more advice about this, see your high school guidance counselor.

350

APPENDIXES

.................................................................

The questions in a set usually go from the easiest to the hardest. Try to go through the easy ones quickly but carefully. The exception to the easiest-to-hardest rule is the critical reading questions. These follow the development of the passage.

TIP On the SAT, all questions count the same. You won’t get more points for answering a really difficult math question than you will get for answering a very simple sentence completion question. Remember that when you’re moving through the test. The more time you spend wrestling with the answer to one “stumper,” the less time you have to whip through several easier questions.

..........................................................................................

TIP

Format of a Typical SAT Critical Reading Time

Total: 70 minutes • Two 25-minute sections • One 20-minute section

Content

• Reading Comprehension: Questions based on • Single paragraphs • Longer passages • Paired paragraphs • Paired longer passages • Sentence-level reading

Question Types

• Multiple choice with 5 answer choices • Critical reading • Sentence completions

Score

200–800

Writing Time

Total: 60 minutes • 25-minute essay • One 25-minute multiple-choice section • One 10-minute multiple-choice section

Content

• Grammar and usage • Word choice (diction)

Question Types

• • • • •

Score

200–800; essay subscore 2–12

Multiple-choice with 5 answer choices Identifying sentence errors Improving sentences Improving paragraphs Student-written essay

Mathematics Time

Total: 70 minutes • Two 25-minute sections • One 20-minute section

Content

• • • •

Question Types

• Multiple-choice with 5 answer choices • Student-produced responses (grid-ins)

Score

200–800

www.petersons.com

Algebra I Algebra II Geometry Data analysis, statistics, probability

Appendix B: All About the SAT

351

.................................................................

The question types in the SAT don’t cover a wide variety of topics. They are very limited—no science, no world languages, no social studies. You’ll find only questions testing reading comprehension, writing skills, and math skills—skills that you’ve been working on since kindergarten. Most of the questions are multiple choice. That’s good because it means the correct answer is right there on the page for you. You just have to find it—easier said than done sometimes, but true. Only the math grid-ins and the essay are “student-produced” answers. For the grid-ins, you’ll need to do the calculations and then fill in bubbles on the answer sheet to show your answers. (More about the bubbles later in this chapter.) The following pages provide you with a closer look at the question types and question formats that you will find in each section on the SAT.

SAT CRITICAL READING SECTIONS The critical reading section tests your reading comprehension, critical reading skills, and vocabulary. All the questions are multiple choice. Critical reading sections may be a mix of sets of sentence completion questions and sets of questions relating to paragraphs and/or longer passages.

Sentence Completions Just as the name implies, sentence completions are “fill-in-the-blank” questions. They may have one or two blanks. Your job is to analyze the answer choices and choose the word or words that best fit each blank. The questions test how well you can use context clues and word meanings to complete a sentence. The directions for SAT sentence completion questions look like this: Directions: Each of the following sentences contains one or two blank spaces to be filled in by one of the five choices listed below each sentence. Select the word or words that best complete the meaning of the sentence. Here are three sample SAT sentence completion questions. Try each one on your own, before you read the explanation that accompanies it. Many hours of practice are required of a successful musician, so it is often not so much ________ as ________ that distinguishes the professional from the amateur. (A) genius. .understanding (B) money. .education (C) talent. .discipline (D) fortitude. .mediocrity (E) technique. .pomposity

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

GET TO KNOW THE SAT QUESTION TYPES

352

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

The correct answer is (C). How do you know this? The sentence gives you a clue. The “not so much . . . as . . .” lets you know that there is some kind of contrast here. Choices (B) and (C) both show a contrast, but choice (C) is the only one that makes sense in the sentence.

The sudden death of the world-renowned leader ________ his followers, but it ________ his former opponents. (A) saddened. .devastated (B) shocked. .encouraged (C) depressed. .tempered (D) satisfied. .aided (E) prostrated. .depressed The correct answer is (B). The word but is your clue that the word in the second blank will contrast with the word in the first blank. Only the words shocked and encouraged offer the logical contrast that is expected between the feelings of followers and opponents on the death of a leader.

Despite his valor on the football field, the star athlete _________ when forced to take a flu shot. (A) relaxed (B) trembled (C) hustled (D) sidled (E) embellished The correct answer is (B). The word despite is your clue that the athlete will do something less than heroic when confronted with the flu shot. Trembled completes the sentence and continues the strong tone of irony.

Reading Comprehension SAT critical reading questions present a passage that you are to read and answer questions about. The passage may be a single paragraph, paired paragraphs, one long passage, or paired long passages. The questions follow the order in which the information appears in the passage. The passage can be about almost anything, and the questions test how well you understand the passage and the information in it. The answer to every question is either directly stated or implied in the reading selection.

www.petersons.com

Appendix B: All About the SAT

353

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

The directions for critical reading questions look like the following:

NOTE

Directions: The passage below is followed by a set of questions. Read the passage and answer the accompanying questions, basing your answer on what is stated or implied in the passage.

It’s an open book test. In SAT critical reading questions, the

Here is a sample of what to expect in the way of passages. This is about the length of a single paragraph passage. The following passage discusses the mythical island of Atlantis.

answers will always be directly stated or implied in the passage.

A legendary island in the Atlantic Ocean beyond the Pillars of Hercules was first mentioned by Plato in the Timaeus. Atlantis was a fabulously beautiful and prosperous land, the seat of an empire 9,000 years before Solon. Its inhabitants overran part of Europe and Africa, Athens alone being able to defy them. Because of the impiety of its people, the island was destroyed by an earthquake and inundation. The legend may have existed before Plato and may have sprung from the concept of Homer’s Elysium. The possibility that such an island once existed has caused much speculation, resulting in a theory that pre-Columbian civilizations in America were established by colonists from the lost island. The main purpose of the passage is to discuss (A) the legend of Atlantis. (B) Plato’s description of Atlantis in the Timaeus. (C) the conquests made by citizens of Atlantis. (D) the possibility that the Americas were settled by colonists from Atlantis. (E) the destruction of Atlantis. The correct answer is (A). The main purpose should be represented by an overall statement. While the details in choices (B), (C), (D), and (E) are all mentioned in the text, choice (A) is the only overall statement.

According to the passage, we may safely conclude that the inhabitants of Atlantis (A) were known personally to Homer. (B) were a peace-loving people who stayed close to home. (C) were a religious and superstitious people. (D) used the name Columbus for America. (E) were never visited by Plato. The correct answer is (E). At the time Plato mentioned Atlantis, it was already legendary. Therefore, Plato could not have visited the island.

www.petersons.com

354

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

According to the legend, Atlantis was destroyed because the inhabitants (A) failed to obtain an adequate food supply. (B) failed to conquer Greece. (C) failed to respect their gods. (D) believed in Homer’s Elysium. (E) had become too prosperous. The correct answer is (C). The only cause that’s mentioned in the passage is the “impiety” of the people of Atlantis.

SAT WRITING SECTIONS The SAT writing test consists of multiple-choice questions and one student-produced essay. The multiple-choice questions test how well you understand and use Standard Written English. The questions are divided into the following three topics: •

Identifying sentence errors

•

Improving sentences

•

Improving paragraphs

Identifying Sentence Errors Identifying sentence error questions provide you with four possible errors in a single sentence to correct. You must decide which underlined portion, if any, is incorrect. The directions for identifying sentence errors look something like the following: Directions: The sentences below contain errors in grammar, usage, word choice, and idiom. Parts of each sentence are underlined and lettered. Decide which underlined part contains the error and circle its letter. If the sentence is correct as it stands, circle E under “No error.” No sentence contains more than one error.

Here are some examples. Our blue team competed with our white team for five years, but the white team A B C was best every time. No error D E The correct answer is (D). In cases of comparison of two things, the comparative form of the adjective must be used. The comparative form of the word good is better. Only where there are three or more things being compared should the superlative form be used.

www.petersons.com

Appendix B: All About the SAT

355

.................................................................

The correct answer is (B). Laying is the present participle of lay (“to put in place,” “to set, as a table”). Lying is the present participle of lie (“to recline,” “to remain in position,” “to remain motionless”), which should be used here.

..........................................................................................

From the shards of glass laying all over the living room, we hastily inferred A B C D that there had been an implosion brought on by the cyclone. No error E

NOTE Remember that choice (E) is always “No error”

According to Thoreau, Walden was the deepest pond in the area and the last A B to freeze every winter. No error C D E The correct answer is choice (E). The sentence is correct as written. Be careful on the real SAT: Answer choice (E) does not come up more than a couple of times. If you pick that answer choice more than that, go back and check.

in identifying sentence error questions. You can save yourself some time by not reading answer (E)—but only for identifying sentence error

Improving Sentences

questions.

Improving sentence questions test how well you know and use standard punctuation and grammar. Some questions also assess your ability to spot and revise wordiness. The directions look something like the following: Directions: The sentences below contain problems in grammar, sentence construction, word choice, and punctuation. Part or all of each sentence is underlined. Select the lettered answer that contains the best version of the underlined section. Answer (A) always repeats the original underlined section exactly. If the sentence is correct as it stands, select choice (A). Circle the letter that appears before your answer.

The reason we stopped fishing was because the fish had already stopped biting (A) because the fish had already stopped biting (B) because the fish had all ready stopped biting (C) that the fish had already stopped biting (D) that the fish had all ready stopped biting (E) because the fish had stopped biting already The correct answer is (C). The conjunction “because” makes no sense following “reason.” A subordinate conjunction like “that” or “why” makes better logic. Choice (D) is wrong because “all ready” is not an adverb.

www.petersons.com

356

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Ignorance of the law does not preclude you from being arrested for a misdemeanor. (A) preclude you from being arrested (B) prevent you from being innocent (C) preclude you from being innocent (D) prevent your being acquitted (E) preclude your being arrested The correct answer is (E). “Preclude” should not be confused with “prevent.” The idea of preventing something from happening in advance differs from mere prevention “on the spot.” Choice (D) is correct usage since the genitive your precedes the participle being, but it changes the meaning of the original sentence.

The textbook was poorly written, outdated, and with errors. (A) with errors (B) with mistakes (C) factually incorrect (D) showing errors (E) being erroneous The correct answer is (C). Factually incorrect is needed to parallel poorly written, outdated.

Improving Paragraphs For this set of questions, you will be given passages to read and answer questions about. The passages are supposed to imitate a first draft and your job is to revise and improve it. Questions may relate to individual sentences, paragraphs, or the essay as a whole. The directions are similar to the following: Directions: Questions 1–3 are based on a passage that might be an early draft of a student’s essay. Some sentences in this draft need to be revised or rewritten to make them both clear and correct. Read the passage carefully; then answer the questions that follow it. Some questions require decisions about diction, usage, tone, or sentence structure in particular sentences or parts of sentences. Other questions require decisions about organization, development, or appropriateness of language in the essay as a whole. For each question, choose the answer that makes the intended meaning clearer and more precise and that follows the conventions of Standard Written English.

(1) Is television an enhancer of or a deterrent to education? (2) Some educators feel that, properly managed, television can open up educational vistas to children and expose them to ideas; others say that television stifles activity and turns children into passive creatures.

www.petersons.com

Appendix B: All About the SAT

357

.................................................................

In relation to the entire passage, which of the following best describes the writer’s intention in sentence (2). (A) To evaluate an opinion set forth in paragraph two (B) To point out a difference of opinion regarding the opening sentence (C) To restate the opening sentence (D) To provide examples (E) To summarize contradictory evidence The correct answer is (C). The first sentence, phrased as a question, presents the two opposing views of television vis-à-vis education. The second sentence rephrases this by using the two camps of educators, the first viewing it as an enhancer and the second viewing it as a deterrent to education. Thus, sentence (2) restates the first sentence, and choice (C) is correct.

Which of the following is the best revision of the underlined portion of sentence (3) below? Certainly most people will agree that television is here to stay and that parents must accept the fact that their children are going to watch programs and they will have to deal with it. (A) will have to deal with their children’s television watching (B) will as a result be forced to accept their children as they watch television (C) must accept and deal with their children if they watch television (D) must accept this, children will watch television and this must be handled (E) will have to deal with their children since they will watch television The correct answer is (A). The portion underlined is awkward and wordy, and it ends with a pronoun whose antecedent is not clear. Choice (A) corrects these weaknesses. Choices (B), (C), and (E) change the meaning of the sentence, and choice (D) is grammatically incorrect.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

(3) Certainly most people will agree that television is here to stay and that parents must accept the fact that their children are going to watch programs and they will have to deal with it. (4) By this, they must learn first of all what kind of programs are available and also the time schedule. (5) Perhaps they will have to preview programs. (6) Then parents must decide which programs will be beneficial for children.

358

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

Which of the following is the best way to combine sentences (4), (5), and (6)? (A) Parents will have to learn time schedules, programs, and how to evaluate television. (B) The availability of programs as well as the time schedule will help parents to evaluate programs beneficial to children. (C) Subject matter of programs, time scheduling, and even actual previewing are factors that help parents decide on the suitability of television for children. (D) In order to decide on what programs are beneficial for their children, parents will have to develop criteria. (E) It is up to parents to evaluate programs for their children. The correct answer is (C). Only choice (C) takes in all the ideas expressed in sentences (4), (5), and (6)—kinds of programs available, time schedules, previewing, and deciding which programs are beneficial—and combines them in a grammatically correct sentence. Choice (A) is awkward and changes the intended meaning. Choices (B), (D), and (E) omit much of the original meaning.

The Essay You will be given one essay prompt and asked to write a persuasive essay in response to it. You don’t need any specific subject-area knowledge to write your essay. The objective is to show the readers that you can develop a thesis, support it with examples, and come to a conclusion that accurately describes your point of view on the topic. The directions and essay prompt will be similar to the following: Directions: Think carefully about the statement below and the assignment that follows it. Topic: Some people criticize city life for being dangerous, expensive, and noisy. Others describe country life as dull, culturally empty, and narrow-minded. Assignment: What is your opinion of the city versus country living argument? Plan and write an essay that develops your ideas logically. Support your opinion with specific evidence taken from your personal experience, your observations of others, or your reading.

To write an essay in response to this prompt, you would need first to determine what you think about the issue and why. The “why” would then become your argument. The next step would be deciding on at least three examples to present to support your “why’s.” This planning step is the most important part of your essay.

www.petersons.com

Appendix B: All About the SAT

359

.................................................................

The questions in the math sections are about problem solving in arithmetic, basic and intermediate algebra, geometry, data analysis, statistics, and probability. There are two question formats for math questions: multiple-choice and grid-ins (student-produced responses).

Multiple-Choice Math SAT multiple-choice math questions look like all the other standard multiple-choice math questions you’ve ever seen. A problem is given in arithmetic, algebra, geometry, or statistics, and five answers are presented from which you must choose the correct answer. The directions are similar to the following: Directions: Solve the following problems using any available space on the page for scratchwork. On your answer sheet, fill in the choice that best corresponds to the correct answer. Notes: The figures accompanying the problems are drawn as accurately as possible unless otherwise stated in specific problems. Again, unless otherwise stated, all figures lie in the same plane. All numbers used in these problems are real numbers. Calculators are permitted for this test. following a math answer explanation indicates that a calculator could be helpful Note: A in solving that particular problem. Here are some sample multiple-choice math questions. Try them yourself before looking at the solutions that are given. A certain triangle has sides that are, respectively, 6 inches, 8 inches, and 10 inches long. A rectangle with an area equal to that of the triangle has a width of 3 inches. What is the perimeter of the rectangle, in inches? (A) 11 (B) 16 (C) 22 (D) 24 (E) 30 1 The correct answer is (C). The area of the triangle is bh, which in this case is 2 1 3 6 3 8 5 24. The area of a rectangle is A 5 l 3 w. Since we know the width and 2 area, 24 5 l 3 3; therefore, l 5 8. The perimeter of the rectangle is P 5 2l 1 2w, which we find to be (2 3 8) 1 (2 3 3) 5 16 1 6 5 22.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

SAT MATH SECTIONS

360

APPENDIXES

.................................................................

While a calculator may be helpful in solving some SAT math questions, it isn’t absolutely necessary for any problem—and in some cases it won’t help you at all. In this book, we show you where we think a calculator may be helpful. On test day, use your judgment in choosing whether—and when—to use a calculator.

..........................................................................................

TIP

The major concepts that you might need in order to solve math problems are given in the test section. You don’t need to worry about memorizing these facts, but you do need to know when to use each one.

The closest approximation to the correct answer for 5 2

=32.076 1 1.000173 is

(A) 9 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 3 (E) 0 The correct answer is (E). =32.076 is slightly more than halfway between 5 and 6, say 5.6. Also, 1.000173 is very slightly over 13 5 1. Therefore, 5 2 5.6 1 1 5 0.04. The closest answer given is 0.

If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same quantity, the resulting fraction is (A) always greater than the original fraction. (B) always less than the original fraction. (C) always equal to the original fraction. (D) one half the original fraction. (E) not determinable. The correct answer is (A). If the numerator and denominator of the fraction ~n 1 q! n are increased by a quantity q, the new fraction is . Compare this to the d ~d 1 q! old fraction by finding a common denominator d(d 1 q). The old fraction is d~n 1 q! ~nd 1 dq! n~d 1 q! ~nd 1 nq! 5 ; the new fraction is . Comparing the old d~d 1 q! d~d 1 q! d~d 1 q! d~d 1 q! numerator (nd 1 nq) with the new, the new fraction is larger, since d . n. The fraction in this example must be a proper fraction.

www.petersons.com

Appendix B: All About the SAT

361

.................................................................

Unlike multiple-choice math, the grid-ins section of the SAT does not give you the answers. You have to compute the answer and then fill in your answer in the bubbles on your answer sheet. You may use the “Reference Information” table for these problems also. The directions for the grid-ins are similar to the following:

..........................................................................................

Grid-Ins

TIP Only the ovals count. The machine that

Directions: Solve each of the following problems and write the arithmetic value of your answer in the open spaces at the top of the correspondingly numbered grid on your answer sheet. Then grid your answer by blackening the ovals that correspond to the decimal point, fraction line, and numbers in your answer. Notes: If a question has more than one correct answer, grid only one of them. 17 1 41 1 To grid 4 , use 4.25 or . Do not use 4 as it will be read as . 4 4 4 4

correct answer to a grid-in question,

the ovals.

The circumference of a circle is 20p. If the area of the circle is ap, what is the value of a? C 5 2pr 5 20p r 5 10 A 5 pr2 5 p(10)2 5 100p 5 ap a 5 100

If 35% of a number is 70, what is the number?

100

you write in the

unless you fill in

Decimal answers should be entered with the greatest accuracy allowed by the grid.

35x

the ovals. Even if

credit for it

Answers may begin in any grid column.

100

can only “read”

you’ll get no

None of these answers requires a minus sign.

35

scores your test

• x 5 70

5 70

x 5 200

Find the mode of the following group of numbers: 8, 8, 9, 10, 11 The mode is the number that occurs most frequently. The mode 5 8.

www.petersons.com

362

APPENDIXES

................................................................. ..........................................................................................

THE SAT ANSWER SHEET On the day of the test when you are given your test booklet, you’ll also be given a separate answer sheet. For each multiple-choice question, you’ll see a corresponding set of answer ovals, also known as “bubbles.” The ovals are labeled A to E. Here are two points to remember about the answer sheet:

TIP Make sure you’re in the right place! Always check to see that the answer space you fill in corresponds to the question you are answering.

•

Answer sheets are read by machines—and machines can’t think. That means it’s up to you to make sure you’re in the right place on the answer sheet every time you record an answer. The machine won’t know that you really meant to answer question 25 when you marked the space for question 26.

•

Don’t be a wimp with that pencil. Fill in your chosen answer ovals completely and boldly so that there can be no mistake about which answers you chose.

Take a look at this sample answer sheet. You can just imagine what the machine will do with it.

In the answer-sheet example we show you here, the only answers that will be registered correctly are 29 and 35. Question 30 isn’t filled in completely, and Question 31 isn’t dark enough, so the machine might miss it. Question 32 is a total mess—will the machine choose A, B, or C? Since Question 33 has two ovals filled in, they cancel each other out and this is registered as an omitted question. There’s no penalty, but there’s no credit either. The same will happen with Question 34; no answer, no credit. Let’s move on to the student-produced responses. You’ll still be filling in ovals, but they will look a little different from the multiple-choice ovals. Here’s a sample of the special grid you will use.

www.petersons.com

Appendix B: All About the SAT

363

.................................................................

. O

/ O

/ O

. O

. O

. O

0 O

0 O

0 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

1 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

2 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

3 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

4 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

5 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

6 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

7 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

8 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

9 O

..........................................................................................

TIP

← boxes to write your numerical answer ← fractional lines—use at most one per answer ← decimal points—use at most one per answer

You are allowed to use a fourfunction, batterypowered, scientific or graphing calculator for the math sections of the SAT. You may not use the following:

At the top of the grid, you’ll write in the actual numerical answer. The slashes are used for answers with fractions. If you need one of these fraction lines in your answer, darken one of the ovals. The ovals with the dots are for answers with decimal points—use these ovals just as you do the fraction line ovals. Then you use the number ovals to represent the actual numbers in your answer.

hand-held mini-computers, laptop computers, pocket organizers, calculators that

HOW THE SAT IS SCORED

print or “talk,” or

OK, you’ve filled in all your ovals, written your essay, the 3 hours and 45 minutes are up (not a minute too soon), and you’ve turned in your answer sheet and your essay sheet. What next? Off your answers go to the machines at ETS and to the high school and college teachers who have been trained to read and score the essays. The machines can scan the bubble sheets in seconds and calculate a score for most of your test. Two readers will score your essay and return their scores to ETS. In scoring the multiple-choice and grid-in sections of the SAT, the machines give one point for each correct answer and deduct one-quarter point for each incorrect answer. Incorrect answers to grid-in questions have no effect on your score. Each reader of your essay uses a rubric against which he or she reads your essay. Each reader then gives your essay a score from 1 to 6. The two scores will be combined by ETS to give you an essay subscore. You will also receive a subscore ranging from 20 to 80 for the multiple-choice section of the writing test.

calculators with letters on the keyboard.

TIP Because the SAT can vary in format, scaled scores allow the test-maker to account for

The result of these calculations for each part of the SAT—critical reading, mathematics, and writing—is your raw score. This is then converted to a scaled score between 200 and 800. This is the score that is reported to you and the colleges to which you are applying.

differences from one version of the SAT to another. Using scaled scores ensures

EDUCATED GUESSING WILL BOOST YOUR SCORE!

that a score of

The fractional deduction for wrong answers makes random guessing a wash—statistically speaking, you’re unlikely to change your score. This means that if you come to a question that you have absolutely no idea how to answer, you’re probably better off skipping it and moving on, rather than just choosing an answer at random. www.petersons.com

500 on one SAT is equivalent to 500 on another.

364

APPENDIXES

.................................................................

Don’t spin your wheels by spending too much time on any one question. Give it some thought, take your best shot,

..........................................................................................

NOTE

Although random guessing won’t help you, anything better than random guessing will. On most questions, you should be able to guess better than randomly by using common sense and the process-of-elimination techniques that you’ve learned. Even if you aren’t certain which answer is correct, you might be certain that one or more of the answer choices is definitely wrong. If you can knock out one choice out of five, you have a 25 percent chance of guessing 1 correctly. If you can knock out two choices, the odds go up to 33 percent. If you can knock out 3 three, you have a 50/50 chance of guessing the right answer. With odds like this, it makes sense to guess, especially when you realize that a single correct guess can raise your scaled score as much as 10 points.

How Educated Guessing Can Help Let’s take a sample situation to demonstrate the effectiveness of educated guessing. Let’s say that on the entire SAT there were 40 questions you were unsure of. Now we know what you’re thinking. Forty questions seem like an awful lot of questions with which to have difficulty. But think about it: If you answered every other one of the SAT’s questions correctly, you’d already be scoring over 1200! So to have trouble with 40 questions is not only possible, it’s likely. Now remember how the SAT is scored. Every question you answer correctly is worth 1 raw score point, which corresponds to roughly 10 scaled score points. For every question you leave blank, you gain nothing and lose nothing. And for every incorrect answer you mark down, you lose of a raw score point, which corresponds to approximately 2.5 scaled score points. When students first learn this, they usually get nervous about guessing. After all, who wants to lose points on questions you’re unsure of? However, a more careful look demonstrates the exact opposite: educated guessing can dramatically improve your score even if you make many incorrect guesses along the way. Let’s get back to those 40 difficult questions. You basically have three choices: you can leave them all blank in fear of losing points; you can guess randomly; or you can use process-of-elimination techniques to make educated guesses. Let’s examine the outcome of each approach: The fearful student takes the first approach and leaves all 40 questions blank. For his effort, he receives no points and loses no points. So he breaks even.

The random guesser picks the answers for random reasons. Maybe he picks choice (C) for every one. Or maybe he fills his answer sheet in such a way as to make a visually appealing pattern. What will happen to the random guesser? Well, statistically speaking, he will answer 1 out of every 5 questions correctly, since most questions have five answer choices. That 1 means he will answer 8 questions correctly out of 40 ( of 40). For his effort, the random 5 guesser will pick up 80 points for the questions he got right (8 3 10 points) and lose 80 points for the 32 questions he got wrong (32 3 2.5 pts). So the random guesser ends up in the exact same position as the fearful student. The smart test-taker will take advantage of what she does know to make educated guesses. You will become the smart test-taker! You will use the process-of-elimination techniques that www.petersons.com

Appendix B: All About the SAT

365

.................................................................

Guessing on 40 Difficult Questions Right The Fearful Student

0

The Random Guesser

8 (180)

The Smart Test-Taker

16 (1160)

Number Wrong 0

Number Blank

Total Points

40

0 pts

32(280)

0

0 pts

24(260)

0

100 pts

Obviously, the better you get at eliminating implausible choices, the more points you will pick up from educated guessing. But no matter what, if you have time to read through a question and eliminate at least one choice, it is always to your benefit to guess. Don’t worry about the fact that you will probably get the question wrong, because you don’t need to guess correctly on too many questions to gain points. As long as you are guessing better than randomly, you will do considerably better.

www.petersons.com

..........................................................................................

are discussed in this book. On virtually every question, you will eliminate one, two, or three poor choices. Let’s say that you answer 16 questions correctly out of the 40 you’re unsure of. Even though that’s a pretty low percentage, you will do considerably better than the fearful student or the random guesser. For the 16 questions you answer correctly, you will receive 160 points (16 3 10 pts), and for the 24 questions you answer incorrectly, you will lose 60 points (24 3 2.5 pts). So by doing nothing more than answering questions you’ve already thought about, you pick up 100 scaled score points. Here’s a table that might make more sense of these numbers:

NOTES

NOTES

NOTES

Peterson’s Book Satisfaction Survey Give Us Your Feedback Thank you for choosing Peterson’s as your source for personalized solutions for your education and career achievement. Please take a few minutes to answer the following questions. Your answers will go a long way in helping us to produce the most user-friendly and comprehensive resources to meet your individual needs. When completed, please tear out this page and mail it to us at: Publishing Department Peterson’s, a Nelnet company 2000 Lenox Drive Lawrenceville, NJ 08648 You can also complete this survey online at www.petersons.com/booksurvey.

1. What is the ISBN of the book you have purchased? (The ISBN can be found on the book’s back cover in the lower right-hand corner. ) ______________________ 2. Where did you purchase this book? ❑ Retailer, such as Barnes & Noble ❑ Online reseller, such as Amazon.com ❑ Petersons.com ❑ Other (please specify) _____________________________ 3. If you purchased this book on Petersons.com, please rate the following aspects of your online purchasing experience on a scale of 4 to 1 (4 = Excellent and 1 = Poor). 4

3

2

1

Comprehensiveness of Peterson’s Online Bookstore page

❑

❑

❑

❑

Overall online customer experience

❑

❑

❑

❑

4. Which category best describes you? ❑ High school student ❑ Parent of high school student ❑ College student ❑ Graduate/professional student ❑ Returning adult student

❑ ❑ ❑ ❑

Teacher Counselor Working professional/military Other (please specify) _______________________

5. Rate your overall satisfaction with this book. Extremely Satisfied

Satisfied

Not Satisfied

❑

❑

❑

6. Rate each of the following aspects of this book on a scale of 4 to 1 (4 = Excellent and 1 = Poor). 4

3

2

1

Comprehensiveness of the information

❑

❑

❑

❑

Accuracy of the information

❑

❑

❑

❑

Usability

❑

❑

❑

❑

Cover design

❑

❑

❑

❑

Book layout

❑

❑

❑

❑

Special features (e.g., CD, flashcards, charts, etc.)

❑

❑

❑

❑

Value for the money

❑

❑

❑

❑

7. This book was recommended by: ❑ Guidance counselor ❑ Parent/guardian ❑ Family member/relative ❑ Friend ❑ Teacher ❑ Not recommended by anyone—I found the book on my own ❑ Other (please specify) _____________________________ 8. Would you recommend this book to others? Yes

Not Sure

No

❑

❑

❑

9. Please provide any additional comments.

______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________

Remember, you can tear out this page and mail it to us at: Publishing Department Peterson’s, a Nelnet company 2000 Lenox Drive Lawrenceville, NJ 08648 or you can complete the survey online at www.petersons.com/booksurvey. Your feedback is important to us at Peterson’s, and we thank you for your time! If you would like us to keep in touch with you about new products and services, please include your e-mail address here: ___________________________________________